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[hv=pc=n&w=sat83hada8652cj73&e=sq762hj98d7ckqt52&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1d(4%2B!S%2C%2010-15)2h(weak)2s3hpp3sppp]266|200[/hv]

 

1 shows 4+, not 4, 10-15

 

3 made 10 tricks, losing a trump, A and a club ruff.

+620 at the other table.

 

As East, I didn't feel like bidding 3 or 3 (which?) first time with soft values and J-x-x.

When the raise came, the belated 3 was more attractive. Not match points, so this is invitational, not competitive. Yes?

 

Partner passed, though I think she would have bid game with spades and diamonds swapped.

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Not sure whether this was pairs or IMPs? I don't play your system, but play Acol which has 4cM. In the nearest equivalent auction 1!S (2!H) ?, I think I'd stretch to 3!S on the East hand, certainly at IMPs. Two reasons:

 

1. We have a bid available to show a sounder raise (2NT)

2. My partner doesn't like those "bid two then bid three" auctions, so I try not to raise his blood pressure...

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As East, I didn't feel like bidding 3 or 3 (which?) first time with soft values and J-x-x.

When the raise came, the belated 3 was more attractive. Not match points, so this is invitational, not competitive. Yes?

I don't think 3S can be invitational - you already made that decision a round earlier. I don't remember Scamp well enough, but if West has a game-try double then 3S is clearly just competitive. Even without it, trying to show a hand that doesn't fit into the range you initially showed is asking a lot from partner. Once you choose to go low with 2S there doesn't seem to be a sensible route to game.

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Edit: I missed the fact that 1 showed spades, not diamonds. That'll teach me to read first, talk later.

 

What would 2NT have been over 2? If that shows a sound raise to 3 you'll have more room to explore opener's pattern or strength. Maybe opener could then have doubled their 3 to show a maximum with shortness (so that East can upgrade the Jxx - almost no wasted values). If 2 is a wide-ranging nuisance bid I think you are just fixed by the system.

 

The standard auction 1 (natural) - (2) - X - (3); 3 (if this is invitationa, a game try double instead if it is not)-(P)-4 looks normal to me so I think you just have a system disadvantage here.

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Looks like your pair uses the minimalist bidding system where you only make the minimum bids instead of showing values. 2 is a huge underbid with 4 trumps, a singleton, and a good 5 card suit as a source of tricks. I would rather bid 4 than bid 2 Passing 2 is another huge underbid with 3 aces, a singleton in opponents suit, and a system maximum. Passing 3 is consistent with passing 2.

 

I can't blame anybody for missing game because you followed the system.

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Looks like I underbid as East, vul at IMPs.

 

In my defence, it's worth noting that West would have an automatic 1 opening with

 

Axxx Qxx KQxx xx,

 

when 2 is a trick too high. Admittedly, that's a particularly dreadful hand to find opposite.

 

Still not sure whether 3 or 3 is right. It would be good to have a mixed raise available, such as the suggested 2NT.

That would be ideal.

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Looks like I underbid as East, vul at IMPs.

 

In my defence, it's worth noting that West would have an automatic 1 opening with

 

Axxx Qxx KQxx xx,

 

when 2 is a trick too high. Admittedly, that's a particularly dreadful hand to find opposite.

 

Still not sure whether 3 or 3 is right. It would be good to have a mixed raise available, such as the suggested 2NT.

That would be ideal.

 

An automatic 1 on a flat, almost 8 loser 11 count? I think that might be one issue. If responder errs on the passive side in the bidding because they are afraid they'll find partner with a sub-minimum opener like that, the risk of missing games when opener holds full values is increased.

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An automatic 1 on a flat, almost 8 loser 11 count? I think that might be one issue. If responder errs on the passive side in the bidding because they are afraid they'll find partner with a sub-minimum opener like that, the risk of missing games when opener holds full values is increased.

It's worth noting that the original poster is playing a strong club system with light openings. 1D shows 10-15 with 4+ spades and denies 4+ hearts. The hand you are objecting to is not even a minimum in their system.

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It's worth noting that the original poster is playing a strong club system with light openings. 1D shows 10-15 with 4+ spades and denies 4+ hearts. The hand you are objecting to is not even a minimum in their system.

But that just means that opener must treat this hand as a super tippy-top hand.

 

No matter what counting highcard points says.

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[hv=pc=n&w=sat83hada8652cj73&e=sq762hj98d7ckqt52&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1d(4%2B!S%2C%2010-15)2h(weak)2s3hpp3sppp]266|200[/hv]

 

1 shows 4+, not 4, 10-15

 

3 made 10 tricks, losing a trump, A and a club ruff.

+620 at the other table.

 

As East, I didn't feel like bidding 3 or 3 (which?) first time with soft values and J-x-x.

When the raise came, the belated 3 was more attractive. Not match points, so this is invitational, not competitive. Yes?

 

Partner passed, though I think she would have bid game with spades and diamonds swapped.

 

IMO, you are beating yourself up too much about this hand. In a standard system, it's easy to imagine a stop in 3 after 1 - (2) - X - (3) - X (or 3). East may choose to bid on, but opener might very easily hold Axxx A KQJxx xxx and bid the same way.

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It's one of those hands where both partners are happy to accept an invite but none has enough to invite (in the context of your system). If you interchange Q and J your West would have had an invite while standard might have missed the game.
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