Al_U_Card Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 [hv=d=s&v=n&w=skxxhatxxdqxxxckx&e=sat9xxxxhxdkxcaxx]266|100|Scoring: IMP[/hv]Bidding went p-1♦-p-1♠-p-1 NT-p-2♣-p-2♠-3♥-4♠-p-p-p Suggestions on how to proceed after the 3H interference and at least try to get to the cold slam. :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 1♦ - p - 1♠ p1N - p - 2♣ - p2♠ - 3♥ - 4♣ - p4♥ - p - 4N - p5♥ - p - 6♠ -p p - p I really don't see the problem, 4♣ looks automatic. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pigpenz Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 i could see some merit to a 4♥ call too....similar to a splinter as in below if there had been no interferenceover the the 2♠ pass 4♥ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 I wouldn't feel too bad about missing this one, to be honest. 23-high perfect fit slams shouldn't be at the top of the radar. Perhaps Luis would explain how his auction would have gone differently opposite Kxx Axx Qxxx Kxx. Or Kxx AQxx Qxxx Qx. Having said that, what would 4H by responder directly over 1NT have meant? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SoTired Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 I agree that finding this one is difficult. I like the 4C bid by responder looking for slam. 4H by responder over 3H does not work 1) it asks opener to bypass game for WHAT? How is opener to decide? 2) To me, it shows extra strength rather than distribution in case opps bid 5H. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 I wouldn't feel too bad about missing this one, to be honest. 23-high perfect fit slams shouldn't be at the top of the radar. Perhaps Luis would explain how his auction would have gone differently opposite Kxx Axx Qxxx Kxx. Or Kxx AQxx Qxxx Qx. Having said that, what would 4H by responder directly over 1NT have meant? With the first hand I think a 2NT bid before bidding 3s or 4s would show the 4333 hand and without ruffing values respoder need a lot more for slam.With the second hand you could probably reach 6 in the same sequence and go down 1.I don't know why some people love posting hands were one sequence or another one doesn't work do you want me to post some hands were 6s is cold and some hands were 6s is down? Very useful information. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Al_U_Card Posted June 23, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 As I expected, this is the kind of hand where responder sees the 10 card fit and even tho the 5 level might be iffy opposite the crummy kind of 12 hcp min that I showed, there are a lot of controls and only 5 true losers in a S contract. My question is more along the lines of " What is more important, to show C or D or H and is there an opportunity to use the 3H interference to our advantage?". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 As I expected, this is the kind of hand where responder sees the 10 card fit and even tho the 5 level might be iffy opposite the crummy kind of 12 hcp min that I showed, there are a lot of controls and only 5 true losers in a S contract. My question is more along the lines of " What is more important, to show C or D or H and is there an opportunity to use the 3H interference to our advantage?". Good post a lot of meat here. 1) Over checkback with xxx of spades and AXXX OF H, I prefer to show where my hcp are first and support spades later, many disagree. Note with XYZ p would bid 2D g/f not 2c. So, with KXX I bid 2s not 2H.2) Over 3h by opp prefer 4clubs cuebid showing where my hcp are again, many disagree.3) Over 4H by pard prefer 5D cuebid. Note at this point partner has bid 2s not 2h and 4h and not 4D.4) Pard should cuebid 6clubs now. If they cannot I would pass 5s by pard.5) My style of 2/1 is not optimized to bid 23 HCP slams with no voids so missing 6S on this one is acceptable trade off for gain on other hand types. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 1♦ - 1♠1NT - 2♣ (or 2♦ if play xyz)2♠ - 4NT5♥-6♠ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted June 23, 2005 Report Share Posted June 23, 2005 my first suggestion is to open the west hand 1nt :lol: ... but given the bidding up to 1nt 1d : 1s1nt : 2d (gf) and now 2s (3h) 4c (p) 4h (p) 4nt once 2d gf is bid, all kinds of possibilities enter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted June 24, 2005 Report Share Posted June 24, 2005 1♦ 1♠1N 2♦2♠ 3♠4♣ 4♦4N 5♠6♠ Cake walk. 2♦ - xyz game force2♠ three card fit, 11-14 or 11-13 depending upon NT range3♠ slam try, else i would signoff here. Sets trumps.4♣ cue-bid4♦ cue-bid4N - my 12 points look great. and i do have heart ACE and spade king, best i can have. no need for LTTC here. 5S - with known 10 card fit, show spade queen.6S - missing a key. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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