Nebulous diamond problem again

[yunling]

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj7h9d765caqj82&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1d(11-13%20bal%20or%2011-15%20no%205M%2F6m)1sdr(strength)2cp2dp]133|200[/hv]

 

Maybe I should have passed over the redouble but I think it usually implies a balanced hand

So what should 2C show here and what about should I do now?

[LBengtsson]

I have not played a Precision-style system for many years but if you use a false ♦ opening (1+♦) you, and your partner, should expect some difficult choices when contesting part score contracts. The hands look a bit misfit to me, and each side has about an equal number of points I guess. Did you want to defend 1♠XX? I would not even though you have good ♠ honors.

 

Partner will know that you could have shorter ♦ than ♣ on this bidding sequence, and yet he has given preference for ♦. I would pass now as the hands may not fit well. You might be in a 3-3/3-2 fit but the opps. do not know this at the point in the bidding. Do not make the situation worse by bidding again. Is there any bid that you can make anyway?

 

It is not likely that West can X this contract on the bidding as East could not compete over 2♦ even though his XX showed 'strength'. Your partner would have bid 2♠ instead 2♦ here if he had strength with his cards. I guess he has just minimum strength on the bidding for his X. Let West guess whether he can bid again. Now if West bids 2♠ and the bidding comes to you, I admit I do not know what is the right thing to do if this happens. But see if it happens first.

[straube]

You're in a similar position that Meckwell would be based on old notes I have. With 1435 (I've flipped the majors) after 1D-1S, 2C-2D they would pass.

 

On your actual auction your opponents have given you an extra bid (compared to 1D-1H P) so you could agree what 1N vs Pass means.