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We missed a good diamond fit, who's fault?


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[hv=pc=n&s=sj843hqdkq7cj7432&n=s2hk87daj9863cat6&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=ppp1d1sp2sppp]266|200[/hv]

 

We got a bottom letting their 2 made because everyone else played in .

 

We use Standard American so 1 suggests 4 s with the exception of 4=4=3=2. Who's fault missing our 9-card fit?

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Mostly South. A first bid of 1NT is acceptabl with such a hand.

 

After the pass, contemplating 9 HCPs, and knowing partner is kinda unbalanced with a likely S singleton, balancing with 2NT for minors (suggesting C and a tolerance for partner’s D who rate to often be 5+ long) is not unreasonable as well. At worst, with very active opps, partner is 2443 and 3C should not be a desperate contract.

 

Both actions will convince N to bid 3D.

 

A brave N could also bid 3D by themselves, but personally I’d like a little more (a 7th D, an extra Q or K in one of my suits) to be fully at ease.

 

*edit* had overlooked (phone…) the 3 passes, so N can alone bid 3D knowing partner is around an 8 balanced, having decided to open, you are not doing it for the opps playing an easy 2-level contract in their 5-3 major fit, maybe pass or 3D were better calls for the opening?

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Am I not the only one to find it strange that players are suggesting a 1NT bid by South here? stiff Q, poor stop in suit. Partner raises to 3NT and down we go! lol! (although the player with the 5 card suit is under us so we might get through.)

 

I do not like giving support with three small, but if partner had opened 1/1 in a 4 card major system like Acol then bidding 2M would be accepted. I do not see that with 5431 shape and good support here that bidding 2 instead of 1NT to be not reasonable, especially if partner's 1 opener promised 4m+.

 

maybe I am the lone one to see it like this but it is only my opinion...

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I can understand not liking pass or 1NT by South, but why are we choosing 2 when we have 2 available?

 

North had a chance to shine on the actual auction. East failed to open with 5(+) spades, so they have at most 11 points and likely 10 or less. West could not produce an invitational raise (and also failed to open, of course) and is limited to approximately 9 points. Along with the 12 in hand this marks South with at least 8 points and 3-4 spades. Failure to bid over 1 indicates at most 3 hearts and weak spades, so 6-7 cards in the minors. With assurances of both values and a fit North could have taken charge and bid on to 3m, possibly via a 2NT gadget.

 

Lastly North would have done well to open 2 in fourth hand, due to the spade shortage.

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1NT would be my bid suggesting some sort of length/control in .

As North, and In the absence of a negative double, I would place South with at worst 4324 and a non-minimum responding hand.

3 then looks reasonably sound with a 6.5ish MLT

 

Playing my unbalanced approach makes bidding more comfortable as a 5 card minor is likely. A subsequent bid of 3 after North's pass then shows 3+ in each of the minors; Pass/Correct.

With a weak hand South can bid 3 pre-emptively. If North is 1444 then expect the pass.

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Playing my unbalanced approach makes bidding more comfortable as a 5 card minor is likely. A subsequent bid of 3 after North's pass then shows 3+ in each of the minors; Pass/Correct.

Does 2NT then show 4(+) clubs? More generally, do you have a way to distinguish relative lengths in the minors? "3+ in each of the minors" is very little to go on.
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Does 2NT then show 4(+) clubs? More generally, do you have a way to distinguish relative lengths in the minors? "3+ in each of the minors" is very little to go on.

2NT in this situation would be a 4(324)/ type invitational hand

With a non-GF hand I'm looking for the 8 card fit so no need or space to distinguish relative length of minors.

Opener is either 5431 w. 3+, long or 4(441).

Very occasionally you could end up in a minor suit Moysian fit when responder is weak & flat w. 1NT looking horrible , I doubt that would occur in competition.

With GF type (1-1) there is space without competition for opener to show their shape & strength precisely.

 

Happy to share the structure if interested

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[hv=pc=n&s=sj843hqdkq7cj7432&n=s2hk87daj9863cat6&d=e&v=0&b=14&a=ppp1d1sp2sppp]266|200| mikl_plkcc 'We got a bottom letting their 2 made because everyone else played in . We use Standard American so 1 suggests 4 s with the exception of 4=4=3=2. Who's fault missing our 9-card fit?'

+++++++++++++++++++

Good problem, mikl_plkcc. After East's 1 overcall, for South, I rank

1. 2 = NAT. Underbid but lead-directional.

2. 1N = NAT. But the singleton Q is a draw-back.

3. Pass = NAT Prefer and holdings reversed.

4. 2 = F/1 Overbid, and not the desired lead.

After West's raise to 2, for North, I rank

1. X = T/O Weak in high cards but typical shape for this call.

2. Pass = NAT. (But timid, IMO).[/hv]

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At the balancing position, S knowing EW has 8-9 fit, and partner has 0-1

 

Therefore, partner is unbalanced with length, worst case is 1444 (and it depends whether you open 1 with 1444)

 

So South should know that EW has major double fit while we likely have minor double fit.

 

I am not sure how others will interpret Dbl here; I guess some of them may even think of PEN over T/O as S fail to act on first round.

If that is T/O, it should be a minor T/O as the hand with length will likely to have negative Dbl in the first round.

 

And one possibility balancing with 2NT which could not be natural as S fail to bid 1NT in first round. So I guess that make sense to interpret that as minor take out with 3 4+ . With 4+ we likely to compete in the first round already.

 

The most important thing is: Whether you want to defend opp 4M - this is the ultimate question you ask when you evaluating the hand. If S think that is risky to push them to 4M, then you may not want to balance at this point.

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At the balancing position, S knowing EW has 8-9 fit, and partner has 0-1

 

Therefore, partner is unbalanced with length, worst case is 1444 (and it depends whether you open 1 with 1444)

 

So South should know that EW has major double fit while we likely have minor double fit.

 

I am not sure how others will interpret Dbl here; I guess some of them may even think of PEN over T/O as S fail to act on first round.

If that is T/O, it should be a minor T/O as the hand with length will likely to have negative Dbl in the first round.

 

And one possibility balancing with 2NT which could not be natural as S fail to bid 1NT in first round. So I guess that make sense to interpret that as minor take out with 3 4+ . With 4+ we likely to compete in the first round already.

 

The most important thing is: Whether you want to defend opp 4M - this is the ultimate question you ask when you evaluating the hand. If S think that is risky to push them to 4M, then you may not want to balance at this point.

A good analysis which identifies North as likely (barring 4 card overcalls & 3 card raises) to be unbalanced

In my post above DK asked what 2NT should be? I suggested an invitational balanced hand with , but this should only be over 1 in my UBD.

Perhaps logically X should suggest equal length &, 2NT should suggest longer and 3 longer with at least 33 for either option. I think this bidding makes reasonable sense with a singleton and 4

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In 4th seat, North should open 2 or pass. Weakish hands with short Spades are dangerous in 4th seat as often the opponents will have a spade fit and be able to outcompete you.

 

A 4th suit pre-empt is not a weak hand, but a minimum single-suited opening bid. It makes it harder for opponents to enter the auction and makes it easier for partner to know when to compete if opponents do butt in.

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If I'm uncomfortable bidding 1NT with that spade holding over 1, my spade holding isn't good enough to let them play 2-of-a-fit. Sure, partner is minimum, because she passed 2 with the known singleton [note, this inference may not be available to you. My partner and I Balance In Direct Seat in this auction], but *I'm not*, and it's time to tell him.

 

I like 2NT if partner will recognize it as Not Natural (again, assuming my spade stopper isn't good enough for 1NT last round); otherwise 3 and hope. Partner isn't one of those crazies that will open 1=3=4=5 minimums 1, right :-)?

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I agree with EricK. I would only open in fourth where my hcp plus number of spades equalled 15 or more, and would pass this one out. Think this is known as a Pearson count?

 

Just to add to that, in a robot tournament in fourth seat, none vul, l I just passed a 1-3-4-5 hand with 13 hcp. It's a bit of a top or bottom strategy because most people would bid. 94% on the board as there is a 5-5 spade fit.

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