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I think it clear to bid 1C, then bid diamonds twice

 

Partner knows we are at least 5=6 (we could be 6=7, but those hands are exceedingly rare…we won’t be 5=7 unless we are very strong, so he will assume we are 5=6 with decent suits)

 

He is in an excellent position to value his hand. Minor suit honours are huge, major suit aces excellent…if he has only one, he should be worried we’re void there, but for now it’s a good card.

 

If he bids 3N, we should make it…one of my suits will set up and we’ve warned him about needing major stoppers, plural.

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More than good enough. Over 2S I bid 3D.

 

I assume this is where the problems start. unsure.gif

 

Not exactly, my partner bid 4. I'd like to think this was the start of the problems

(fixed!)

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s3h9dak986caqjt92&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1cp1sp2dp2sp4cp]133|200[/hv]

 

I held;

AJ9765

A5

74

K83

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Not exactly, my partner bid 4. I'd like to think this was the start of the problems

(fixed!)

 

[hv=pc=n&e=s3h9dak986caqjt92&d=e&v=e&b=6&a=1cp1sp2dp2sp4cp]133|200[/hv]

 

I held;

AJ9765

A5

74

K83

Maybe refer your partner to the quote from me, in your signature block.

 

Maybe also ask why he/she felt that 4C was more descriptive than 3D.

 

There’s little point in discussing the merits or flaws in any action north can now take, since south has driven the auction completely off the rails.

 

4N ‘should’ be natural, but I’d bet any player who thought 4C was a good idea would take it as keycard.

 

Since I’d assume that partner has something like x x AKxx AKQxxxx for this bidding, I’m not worried about keycarding with no diamond control. While 4C is so bad that one has to wonder wtf is going on, even the player who bid 4C can’t have no diamond control.

 

Of course, it’s not as if I can count winners after keycard.

 

As it happens, partner presumably bids 5S, I bid 5N, partner bids 6D (hopefully we play specific kings) and I bid 7C.

 

Btw, just to be clear: I don’t think 4C exists. My guessing x x AKxx AKQxxxx doesn’t for a nanosecond imply that I think 4C is how to bid that hand…I’d bid 3C, having already reversed.

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4 was Gerber, right?

 

I agree with everything mikeh said. I do sympathise a bit if opener holds, for example, 1=1=4=7 since 3 is NF over 2 and can be bid with only 5 (say, a 2=2=4=5 minimum reverse with soft hearts), and I suppose I would bid 3 (for me simple 4th suit GF) with a non-minimum or very good clubs.

 

On the actual auction I would expect opener to find 3 or 3 with all 4=6 and most 4=7 hands, so I'd expect a good 7 or any 8 clubs for the 4 bid. The king of clubs is staring right in our face, so opener cannot have solid clubs. So on balance I'd play partner for an 8-card suit now. Yikes.

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4 was Gerber, right?

 

I agree with everything mikeh said. I do sympathise a bit if opener holds, for example, 1=1=4=7 since 3 is NF over 2 and can be bid with only 5 (say, a 2=2=4=5 minimum reverse with soft hearts), and I suppose I would bid 3 (for me simple 4th suit GF) with a non-minimum or very good clubs.

 

On the actual auction I would expect opener to find 3 or 3 with all 4=6 and most 4=7 hands, so I'd expect a good 7 or any 8 clubs for the 4 bid. The king of clubs is staring right in our face, so opener cannot have solid clubs. So on balance I'd play partner for an 8-card suit now. Yikes.

 

After partner opens 1 and then makes a reverse, 2 we are in a gf auction, 3 must be 6+ clubs, forward going, forcing!

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After partner opens 1 and then makes a reverse, 2 we are in a gf auction, 3 must be 6+ clubs, forward going, forcing!

Playing reverses as gf is very much a minority view.

 

It’s common to respond to 1C on such as KJxxx Jxx xxx xx…..in my partnerships we’d respond 1S (actually 1H as a transfer) with Kxxxx xxx xxx xx.

 

So to make 2D a gf requires either a truly enormous and rare hand or a desire for minus scores.

 

Indeed, the purpose of playing methods such as ingberman or lebensohl is to allow responder to announce weakness and thus avoid the gf.

 

Ingberman is very good here: use 2H as the negative bid…note that it allows opener an easy 2S on 3=1=4=5 or when she’s faked a reverse with 3=1=3=6, etc.

 

So, playing ingberman, 2S is game force. Playing lebensohl, 2S is ambiguous…it shows 5+ spades but with no strength definition.

 

Btw, while responder should be thinking of slam, at least, over 2D, I wouldn’t bid a forcing 3C, since we should be playing in spades opposite, say, KQx x Axxx AQxxx,which would (for me) be an absolute minimum reverse…warranted by the spade holding….x KQx AJxx AQxxx is a stronger hand but, imo, not worth a reverse….many would differ on that and, indeed, the hand is very difficult to bid if one doesn’t reverse.

 

Again, ingberman does better than does lebensohl, since 2S establishes the gf. Now opener has a trivial 3D, responder bids 4C, forcing, with at least some slam interest.

 

If opener now cuebid 4D, if 4N is keycard then we’ll reach grand unless feeling very pessimistic, since we can discover the diamond King…..of course grand is good only because opener holds the club Jack….but if he doesn’t, clubs could be 2=2 or the right opp has the short diamonds, or opener might hold AKQx AQxxxx in the minors, and so on.I think one would need to be quite pessimistic to avoid 7C.

 

If keycard is unavailable (personally I think 4N, in minor slamming auctions, should show ‘extras in context but not enough to cuebid beyond game’), I can see

 

1C. 1S

2D. 2S

3D. 4C

4D. 4H

5C. 5S

7C

 

Having shown a minimum via 5C, rather than bidding 4N, and seeing the grand slam try of 5S, opener has to bid the grand….she has a ‘good’ bad hand in context.

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After partner opens 1 and then makes a reverse, 2 we are in a gf auction, 3 must be 6+ clubs, forward going, forcing!

 

You should consider this only a 1-round force auction.

 

However, with mistrust rampant is many medium-level partners, I can imagine partner thinking 3 clubs could be passed and therefore has a hand along these lines: void, Kx, AKQ, AQ10xxxxx

 

That's the only thing that makes any kind of sense to me.

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You play kickback, right?

 

And 4 is obviously ace-asking?

 

Or, maybe it's 4? Of course, whichever it is, it's obvious, yes?

 

Make whatever ace-ask call you have, and hope partner gets it right. At least this time, unlike if opener had the reds, you won't get passed in it.

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You play kickback, right?

 

And 4 is obviously ace-asking?

 

Or, maybe it's 4? Of course, whichever it is, it's obvious, yes?

 

Make whatever ace-ask call you have, and hope partner gets it right. At least this time, unlike if opener had the reds, you won't get passed in it.

Regular 1430 with this partner, no kickback. Nothing is obvious after 4

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Playing reverses as gf is very much a minority view.

 

It’s common to respond to 1C on such as KJxxx Jxx xxx xx…..in my partnerships we’d respond 1S (actually 1H as a transfer) with Kxxxx xxx xxx xx.

 

So to make 2D a gf requires either a truly enormous and rare hand or a desire for minus scores.

 

Indeed, the purpose of playing methods such as ingberman or lebensohl is to allow responder to announce weakness and thus avoid the gf.

 

Ingberman is very good here: use 2H as the negative bid…note that it allows opener an easy 2S on 3=1=4=5 or when she’s faked a reverse with 3=1=3=6, etc.

 

So, playing ingberman, 2S is game force. Playing lebensohl, 2S is ambiguous…it shows 5+ spades but with no strength definition.

 

Btw, while responder should be thinking of slam, at least, over 2D, I wouldn’t bid a forcing 3C, since we should be playing in spades opposite, say, KQx x Axxx AQxxx,which would (for me) be an absolute minimum reverse…warranted by the spade holding….x KQx AJxx AQxxx is a stronger hand but, imo, not worth a reverse….many would differ on that and, indeed, the hand is very difficult to bid if one doesn’t reverse.

 

Again, ingberman does better than does lebensohl, since 2S establishes the gf. Now opener has a trivial 3D, responder bids 4C, forcing, with at least some slam interest.

 

If opener now cuebid 4D, if 4N is keycard then we’ll reach grand unless feeling very pessimistic, since we can discover the diamond King…..of course grand is good only because opener holds the club Jack….but if he doesn’t, clubs could be 2=2 or the right opp has the short diamonds, or opener might hold AKQx AQxxxx in the minors, and so on.I think one would need to be quite pessimistic to avoid 7C.

 

If keycard is unavailable (personally I think 4N, in minor slamming auctions, should show ‘extras in context but not enough to cuebid beyond game’), I can see

 

1C. 1S

2D. 2S

3D. 4C

4D. 4H

5C. 5S

7C

 

Having shown a minimum via 5C, rather than bidding 4N, and seeing the grand slam try of 5S, opener has to bid the grand….she has a ‘good’ bad hand in context.I am

 

I need to clarify, I play a reverse by opener is announcing game opposite a partner who could respond to the opening bid, unless partner has responded on a sub minimum, likely after a 1C opening as you note above. With my regular partner I play leb after a reverse.

 

In this game I am a sub in an IMP League team and haven't discussed leb/ingB but its not needed here as driving to slam after partner opens 1 and rebids 2

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Regular 1430 with this partner, no kickback. Nothing is obvious after 4

Surely it is at least obvious that 4 (4th suit at the 4 level) agrees clubs with slam interest? The question is really whether you think you can get any useful information from going slowly. If you think you can then this seems like a safe course that partner will definitely not pass; if not and you have worries about the alternatives, just place the contract with your best guess. After all, partner apparently showed a full GF hand (maybe mention that in the OP?) and we have a solid opening bid with 5 controls and a huge trump fit - how bad can it actually be?

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