Deanrover Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Indy tourney. Imps. Red v. white :) QxxxJ98xxKQJx You pass, p opens 1 ♦ and rebids 2 ♣, what is my move now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 pass. You could obviously have a game but any bid is an overbid by alot. I think pass is percentage. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fifee Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 QxxxJ98xxKQJx If partner opens 1D, do you respond before he rebids 2C? I would envision this auction going:1D p 1H p2C p p Cannot bid 2S, because this is game forcing (reverse by responder). Cannot bid 2NT because for me this shows 11-12 HCP (BBO Advanced defines 2NT as 10-12HCP). H not good enough to rebid, but if I had 6H or better texture, I would. So I would pass 2C by my partner. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Pass, partner won't have a 3 card ♥ support, so playing a 4-3 fit is just fine... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ? If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ? If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ? Why would 2♣ be forcing??? :D The situation is completely different after an auction like 1♠-2♣;2♥... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Hi, I think, I will pass, if there ever was a hand fordowngrading, this hand qualifies. Marlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
joker_gib Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Pass also but in my partnership I would have bid 2♥ on 1♦ showing 5♥ 4♠ 8-10 . Alain Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Why would 2♣ be forcing??? :D The situation is completely different after an auction like 1♠-2♣;2♥... Or even 1♦:1♥, 1♠ which some play as forcing. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 <snip> Cannot bid 2S, because this is game forcing (reverse by responder). <snip>I would pass as well. However, I did want to mention that 2♠ is neither a reverse, nor is it game forcing. It cannot be a reverse since it's fourth suit (non?) forcing. It cannot be game forcing or even forcing as responder is a PASSED HAND. I do believe there is some risk in passing as opener may have up to a 16 or 17 count and no better bid. He may even be 1354, but that doesn't seem to be likely. My guess is if we have a game, it's in 3NT. However, I cannot really risk bidding on and I'm happy to play in our 43 fit. If I were 12 in the minors instead, I would be bidding 2♦ as false preference and seeing if opener had anything more to say. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Pass, I don't see the problem. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bearmum Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 Indy tourney. Imps. Red v. white :( QxxxJ98xxKQJx You pass, p opens 1 ♦ and rebids 2 ♣, what is my move now? since 2♣ here is NF I PASS :ph34r: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted June 16, 2005 Report Share Posted June 16, 2005 How is this problem solved by the (many) BBForum posters who use 2 clubs rebid by opener as 1R force ? If 2C is NF, I think pass stands out, but if 2C is 1RF, where shall we end ? With some partners, I use 2♣ as one round 'force" (it can be passed but only with a highly improbable hand.... this isn't one of them. The way I play 2♣ "force" it shows one of a couple hand types. 1) Strong diamond one suiter (will rebid 3♦2) Balanced 18-19 (will rebid 2NT).. an immediate 2NT would be great heart support3) An intermediate to good minor two suiter (not stong enough for Misho's transfer preempt with a strong two suiter)4) good 15+ hcp and up with three card support generally with clubs (else would open 1NT or jump rebid 3♦ which shows six cars suit and three card heart support. Hands that are not possible are 3-1-4-5 and 3-1-5-4 and weak (would rebid 1NT), not x-y-5-5 and weak (would rebid 3♣, not 2-2-4-5 or 2-2-5-4 (would rebid 1NT or open 1NT). Here my rebid would be 2♠ - showing some values, but not game force. IF partner rebids 2NT (18-19), I will bid 3NT. If partner rebids 3♦ (strong diamond one suiter), I have a problem, but at imps, I would try 3NT based upon my diamond king. If partner rebids 3♣ (minor two suiter, good values), I would pass. If partner bids 3♥, I would bid 4♥. OF course, playing 2♣ as forcing, the rebid with the hand dean had in mind would never have been 2♣. More than likley it would have been 1NT or 3♣ (both weak). I would pass both of those bids with this hand. Also, not playing this esoteric method that I do, over a 2♣ rebid in an individual, I would pass. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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