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I love this hand.

[hv=pc=n&w=sak32h92dakqjt2c9&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=p1cp1dp1hp?]133|200[/hv]

 

When I pick up this hand I'm already thinking "how high?" and then partner opens 1. :D

 

How do you proceed here, how do you treat 1 and 2, or something else?

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In my regular system we are still in 'full Dutch doubleton' theory, and both 1 and 2 are conventional (and so were all bids thus far, sorry).

 

In a more normal system it is quite popular to play 1 natural and 2 4SF. Of course, some partnerships decide to invert the two. I hope you have discussed this sequence.

 

Lastly it is important to note that if you play Walsh 1 tentatively denies a major suit unless GF, so there is some merit to bypassing a 4-card major with a balanced minimum (especially when playing weak NT, 1-1; 1NT (15-17) won't miss a 4-4 major suit fit unless responder is GF). With this agreement partner is showing an unbalanced club-heart hand. Tough!

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This is a good hand for Soloway jump shifts so after 2D the bidding is all natural. That would be my preferred start with this hand.

I'm not sure about 'all natural'; after Soloway at least how I've always understood it, you can never play in spades, as a new suit later is a splinter. It would definitely make finding the right diamond slam easier, but is it worth giving up a possible spade fit?

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I never played it that way but I would not argue with your claim. Maybe I adopted it to my ideas - I really don’t remember. Still, I always liked the idea of weaker strong jump shifts. I probably got that from reading so much Reese.
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This is a good hand for Soloway jump shifts so after 2D the bidding is all natural. That would be my preferred start with this hand.

 

agree. yes, there are other ways of playing Soloway Js, as smerriman has said, but 2 here does not set the trump suit imo. you want to tell partner you have a strong hand from the start. 1 is natural and can be NF in some partnerships. 2 can be 4thSF (GF) but does not show this powerful hand. the only way is Soloway, and then the soloway bidder is in charge, except if opener has a good hand himself. with 1 opener being 2+/3+ in most 2/1 systems, partner can show 4 card major suits up line after 2.

 

the reason for soloway which should only be used upto a max of 2 imo with 2/1 is to tell partner straight away that you are in possible slam zone.

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agree. yes, there are other ways of playing Soloway Js, as smerriman has said, but 2 here does not set the trump suit imo.

The entire premise behind Soloway is that in order to make up for the space lost by jumping, it has to show precisely defined hands.

 

With Soloway these are strong balanced, one suited, or two suited with support for partner; so if you use it on this hand you will have to set the suit as diamonds and accept that you can't play in spades.

 

But perhaps you are mixing up Soloway and older strong jump shifts.

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There are at least 4 "standard" ways of playing here

 

1. 1 is natural and F1R; 2 is art 4SF

2. 1 is nat and GF; 2 is art 4SF

3. 1 is art 4SF; 2 is nat and GF

4. 1 is 2-way, possibly natural but might also be art GF

 

This is an auction you typically need to chat about with a regular partner. It makes a difference whether Opener rebids NT with a balanced hand or you play up-the-line.

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For us 1S is fourth suit forcing. It doesn't promise spades, but it doesn't deny spades and partner can bid 2S (to show a 4414 or 4405 hand).

 

I don't play strong jump shifts in my main partnership, but if I did, a two-suited hand would not be suitable.

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I try to avoid HCP because it always ends badly for me.

Playing with the robots, a Soloway jump shift is the easy choice - 17+ points and a solid suit.

Unfortunately, this option is frowned upon in most Australian clubs where everyone seems to prefer Weak Jump Shifts.

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The entire premise behind Soloway is that in order to make up for the space lost by jumping, it has to show precisely defined hands.

 

With Soloway these are strong balanced, one suited, or two suited with support for partner; so if you use it on this hand you will have to set the suit as diamonds and accept that you can't play in spades.

 

But perhaps you are mixing up Soloway and older strong jump shifts.

 

I have a great suit so would be prepared to suppress the spades, and would bid 2. Having said that, partner still has an opportunity to bid Spades, and if they have Kx(x)(x) of hearts, then playing a spade contract from their side of the table is much better.

 

Missing spades seems most likely if partner has both majors and spades can get lost in a 4SF sequence. In Acol partner has promised 4 clubs, so the 4-4 majors hands are limited to 4=4=1=4 or 4=4=0=5. This makes the risk less than in the OP's system, and might reduce the validity of my answer in the posted circumstances.

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I chose 2 (undiscussed)

[hv=pc=n&w=sak32h92dakqjt2c9&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=p1cp1dp1hp2sp4sp?]133|200[/hv]

 

Bidding 2 undiscussed is really bad (it's a splinter agreeing hearts for us so 4 is kickback).

 

If I think partner will interpret 2 as you intended, I bid 4N.

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If I was sure that partner knew that 2 was natural, so that spades have been agreed, then you can bid 5 now. From your description I think there is a real risk partner will play you for a hand with strong diamonds and no spades, and pass. 4NT also doesn't get there if partner shows one key card. Similarly, partner may (again, assuming partner thinks we intended 2 as 4SF) pass 5 and assume a hand like 1=3=5=4.

Without agreements just bid 4NT (blackwood in spades), that way you can stop in 5 if partner shows zero, and the grand is in the picture if partner shows two and the queen. Opposite 1 keycard I'd push to slam and pray.

 

This is something in the rules of bridge that has confused me quite a few times, actually. Partner has clearly assumed that 2 shows spades (and you have them, which is great!). Does that mean they are compelled to interpret all future bids as if spades have been agreed, or can they 'wake up' on subsequent rounds of bidding? All bids over 4 have sensible meaning both with and without a spade fit.

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I can count 8 + 2QT after the open so don't want to stop before 3NT

Without any agreement 1 natural looking for East to be 4423/4414/4405 followed by slam exploration

 

3 after a non- response hoping for a 4 response 2434/1435 etc. followed by the slam exploration.

 

How would 4 be interpreted after a 3NT response - still looking for the /NT slam?

 

I'd have less of an issue with my partner in an unbalanced /Transfer Walsh system where 1 is GF allowing opener to shape out.

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This is something in the rules of bridge that has confused me quite a few times, actually. Partner has clearly assumed that 2 shows spades (and you have them, which is great!). Does that mean they are compelled to interpret all future bids as if spades have been agreed, or can they 'wake up' on subsequent rounds of bidding? All bids over 4 have sensible meaning both with and without a spade fit.

I think the latter, when subsequent rounds reveal a different hand there is no UI.

 

On this hand I wasn't sure that 1 would be forcing, jumps show strength and we have no splinters, kickback etc.

 

(I will post the full hand later)

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I think the latter, when subsequent rounds reveal a different hand there is no UI.

The problem is that subsequent rounds do not reveal a different hand here. 5/ can well be a slam try in spades, instead of a desire to play. What a mess, especially if you need some time to rethink your options over the jump raise.
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I chose 2 (undiscussed)

[hv=pc=n&w=sak32h92dakqjt2c9&d=n&v=b&b=13&a=p1cp1dp1hp2sp4sp?]133|200[/hv]

 

this auction makes little sense, jillybean. not your fault as you decided 1 then 2 but your partner to raise to 4, that wastes value bidding room imo. your partner did not reverse after opening, so what hand could partner have here??? 4414 or 4405 with 15-16 maybe? if the 4th suit is a GF he does not need to bid 4. if partner has 4414 0r 4405 with < 14 high points and wants to show a minimum hand by fast arriving, then that's all I can think his hand can be.

 

Im guessing always here, but you arrive in a slam and partner has a hand or similar such as QJxx QJxx x AKxx and you can never find out about the two losers...

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this auction makes little sense, jillybean. not your fault as you decided 1 then 2 but your partner to raise to 4, that wastes value bidding room imo. your partner did not reverse after opening, so what hand could partner have here??? 4414 or 4405 with 15-16 maybe? if the 4th suit is a GF he does not need to bid 4. if partner has 4414 0r 4405 with < 14 high points and wants to show a minimum hand by fast arriving, then that's all I can think his hand can be.

 

Im guessing always here, but you arrive in a slam and partner has a hand or similar such as QJxx QJxx x AKxx and you can never find out about the two losers...

 

Fully agree with this post and might add that keycard also is not an answer as you can't find out about the king of hearts - is the holding QJxx or KQ or KJ?

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this auction makes little sense, jillybean. not your fault as you decided 1 then 2 but your partner to raise to 4, that wastes value bidding room imo. your partner did not reverse after opening, so what hand could partner have here??? 4414 or 4405 with 15-16 maybe? if the 4th suit is a GF he does not need to bid 4. if partner has 4414 0r 4405 with < 14 high points and wants to show a minimum hand by fast arriving, then that's all I can think his hand can be.

 

Im guessing always here, but you arrive in a slam and partner has a hand or similar such as QJxx QJxx x AKxx and you can never find out about the two losers...

 

But if they don't take them they walk, so I'm not that unhappy, the leader only has AK 1/4 of the time.

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Im guessing always here, but you arrive in a slam and partner has a hand or similar such as QJxx QJxx x AKxx and you can never find out about the two losers...

This is a an issue using Kickback if partner has signed off with a Min and you have values for a slam. This is why I've switched during lockdown to showing rather than asking for kCs; i.e

4NT even KCs

5 odd KCs with control

5 odd KCs with control denies control

etc.

Additional bids sub 5 continue to show controls so stopping in 5 is possible when the control isn't shown.

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I fully agree, the auction I had was a total dogs breakfast. Having no agreements in regards to slam bidding and only having "jumps show strength" left me guessing.

I think the start of the auction is difficult, even with agreements and I am not sure I want to use a SJS to set diamonds as trump this early and bury the spades.

 

 

[hv=pc=n&s=sqhj754d853cqt532&w=sak32h92dakqjt2c9&n=sj964ht63d764cj86&e=st875hakq8d9cak74&d=n&v=b&b=1&a=p1cp?]399|300[/hv]

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This is something in the rules of bridge that has confused me quite a few times, actually. Partner has clearly assumed that 2 shows spades (and you have them, which is great!). Does that mean they are compelled to interpret all future bids as if spades have been agreed, or can they 'wake up' on subsequent rounds of bidding? All bids over 4 have sensible meaning both with and without a spade fit.

In theory, I think, partner can wake up at any tim. The problem, in real life, is that there is often a clue given out by partner. It’s very difficult for partner, having inferred that something’s gone wrong, not to break tempo even if he or she is able to refrain from giving out body language or facial expressions. Screens help, and being online helps.

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  1. Soloway JS is a specific version of Strong JS that limits the hand types to 3:
    1. balanced hands too strong for other bids in system (will rebid NT);
    2. one-suited hands slam-invitational or better (will rebid suit);
    3. two-suited hands, *including opener's* (will cuebid, any suit but the JS one. Rebidding opener's suit implies no side cuebid).

So I agree with others, this is not a Soloway JS (2 then 2/3 shows diamonds and clubs (and a spade control). I prefer these to "16+" (even "19+") explicitly because jumping with no known place to play runs you out of room really fast.

[*]Speaking of running out of room, I'm putting partner on 4=4=1=4 or 4=4=2=3 (if you wouldn't bid 1NT with that one), dead minimum.

 

Assuming partner's on the same page about 2 (NAT GF+) of course. I need Qxxx, the heart Ace, and either A or K to have a play for 6 (QJ would be nice so I can ruff high and use the 3 to get to the board to pull trump). Unless partner's "dead minimum" can't be "two aces" (which I would argue for; if partner has a slam interest hand, all she might need is two aces. I've had hands where "if your 13 points were just a single ace, I would have made slam"), I should try something.

 

Unfortunately, partner's taken away the opportunity to be delicate, and I'm pretty certain that nothing but "two with/out" is going to stop me from guessing. If you're playing first-round controls at the 5 level, that's nice, because 5 will let you know about the club ace, I guess. If your partner is the type to blame you when "I told you I had nothing", well, 4+2 is likely a better result for partnership harmony than 6-2, and you can discuss all the options after the game.

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