jahol Posted June 13, 2005 Report Share Posted June 13, 2005 IMP teams tournament, young advanced aggressive oppponents in all cases. Board 1. [hv=d=e&v=n&n=sqjxxhaqj9xdjxcjx&s=saxxhxxdkq9cak109x]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] The opponents opened the auction with 3D pre passing all the time then. Your line bid (3D)---3BT---4D--------5C----6BT. Down two, 12 IMPs lost. Please, comment..... Board 2. [hv=d=e&v=n&n=sqjxxhaqj9xdjxcjx&s=saxxhxxdkq9cak109x]133|200|Scoring: IMP[/hv] South opened with 1 club (Standard American), 2 spades pre from the west, double (negative) from north, 4spades from east, doubled from south side , passed.... Just made, 13 IMPs lost. Please, comment Board 3. You have 10x---Q109---J9xx---AKxx Your LHO opened the auction with 1 diam (SA), partner 1 spade, RHO pass, you 1NT (would you bid that?), LHO pass, partner 2H passed to you. Do you pass 2H, bid 2 spades or bid something else? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PriorKnowledge Posted June 13, 2005 Report Share Posted June 13, 2005 Hand 1. Was bidding 3D --- Db --- Pa --- 4DPa --- 5C --- Db all pass?If so, South's X is wrong. With 32 in majors, dbl diam stopper, and 16, bid 3N. Hand 2. With only 12, you might have passed. You are not setting their vul 4S bid much if partner can't make a reopening dbl. NFB would allow responder to bid a non-forcing 3D. This one was unfortunate. I guess the opening diam lead was ruffed. Hand 3. Pass or 2S are about 50/50. Anything else is wrong. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gerben42 Posted June 13, 2005 Report Share Posted June 13, 2005 Hand 1: North should realize that South has to bid 3NT agressively here. Also it seems you had a misunderstanding about 4♦. If you can stop in 4NT that would be best. Hand 2: South should pass 4♠. He doesn't have anything. North then will have a tough decision. 5♦ looks reasonable but could be wrong... Hand 3:I would have bid 1NT and then bid 2♠. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted June 13, 2005 Report Share Posted June 13, 2005 I'm sure that the bidding on the first hand has gone: (3D)-3NT-4D5C-6NT It seems that there was a misunderstanding, was 4D meant as a transfer (as I would play it)? North has no business driving to slam on this bad 12-count. On the second hand it is clear for south to pass 4S, a twelve count without trump tricks. On the third hand I would indeed start with 1NT and then bid 2S. Pass only alternative imo. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 13, 2005 Report Share Posted June 13, 2005 I agree with Han. Also on hand 1 3NT could be based on a long ♣ suit, and north should pass 5♣. And on hand 2 South's double is take out. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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