Echognome Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 [hv=d=w&v=e&s=saqj42h53dakcakq2]133|100|Scoring: MP(P) - P - (1NT) - ?[/hv] After 2 passes, RHO opens a 15-17 NT. What do you do? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GriffenMac Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Double for peanlties? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PMetsch Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 pass, partner will pull the double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 if i have a penalty double, nice. They may have psyched, but they are red/white. At MP at these colors i could go for a trap pass. The more I think about it the more I like it, except im scared they psyched so if i have a penalty X available ill use it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 They don't psyche at these colours. I pass without much hesistation and take my sure plus. Partner will pull if I double for penalty (if possible), and I must pass. We will get more against 1NT. That reminds me of a hand in the Danish Premier League in 1977/78 (yes, I am that old). Red on white RHO opened 1♥ 1st in hand, and there you were in 2nd with AKAQJ964KQ95A Yes, right, a 23 count. At all 12 tables did it go 1♥ all pass for 300. No game made in the other direction. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 I remember a similar hand as well, my team mate bid 2♥ from J109xx and 21 balanced making 8 trciks, my opponent pased, and raised his partner's 2♠ reopening to 4 making 11 tricks. Pass is the key, partner will reopne whenever he has a singleton. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pmacfar Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 Pass. Being on lead and leading the Q♠, you have him down 1 automatically and might be able to run the spades and/or clubs to take him down even more. Take the sure plus score vs the risk of opponents bailing out to something better or your pair getting into trouble. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted June 8, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 [hv=d=n&v=n&n=s7653h984d9742c83&w=saqj42h53dakcakq2&e=s8h10762dqj85c10976&s=sk109hakqjd1063cj54]399|300|Scoring: MPP - P - 1NT - XP* - 2♣ - All Pass * Forces XX[/hv] I was South and decided to risk flattening the hand (since most people here would open a weak NT). West doubled for penalty and partner passed as part of our rescue maneuver and East blinked first. Surprisingly West passed this, but understandable since all but 0-2 points were "accounted for". Those that passed collect a nice number of 100s. Well done! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Blofeld Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 I don't understand East's 2♣ bid. Why not wait until the bidding gets round to you again. Then you can see what North's intention was ; if to play 1NTxx, you can now run ; if to run away, you can assume that you and your p have at least half the deck and perhaps penalise 2♦. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 I don't understand East's 2♣ bid. Why not wait until the bidding gets round to you again. Then you can see what North's intention was ; if to play 1NTxx, you can now run ; if to run away, you can assume that you and your p have at least half the deck and perhaps penalise 2♦. agree, in any event why not shoot out 5clubs now? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 The problem wasn't the penalty double but partner pulling it.I would double 1NT for penalties and expect partner to pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted June 8, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 I can't explain why opponents do what they do. The minute I opened this hand 1NT, the opponents should be getting at least the value of a game if not more. As per the penalty/pulling debate, there is always a tradeoff. The sounder (stronger) your doubles are, the less partner needs to pull. However, the less frequent you will double. I don't really have a position either way on this. I know if I were East, I'd certainly wait for the redouble and see what North is going to do with it. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 I had a hand in a Hubert Phillips (aggregate scoring) match a while ago, when the auction went 1NT (15-17) from meDbl from Su King on my leftPass from partner holding a balanced 9-count.Pass from Phil King on my right holding a 0-count.Pass from me (what else?). This went one off when Su cashed her 6 diamond tricks and an ace.We were making 4H, so were 820 below par. I asked Phil King at the break why he had passed the double, and he said "when Su doubles a strong NT, I know it is going off". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Free Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 This is a clear pass, unless you have a penalty Dbl. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pmacfar Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 For those that pass the 1NT, what is west's opening lead? A Q♠ lead looks automatic, and results in down 2. How can west figure out to go after the minors first? I see that if they start on the minors, EW can set 1NT by 4 tricks, sqeezing south in both minors. If south keeps all hearts, then the K is trapped and the hand could be set 6 or 7. Clubs by north makes 4. What was your result Echognome????? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 For those that pass the 1NT, what is west's opening lead? A Q♠ lead looks automatic, and results in down 2. How can west figure out to go after the minors first? I see that if they start on the minors, EW can set 1NT by 4 tricks, sqeezing south in both minors. If south keeps all hearts, then the K is trapped and the hand could be set 6 or 7. Clubs by north makes 4. What was your result Echognome????? ♠Q lead looks automatic? not to me. I think ♣A(K) lead is automatic. Whether or not EW could take 11 tricks on defense is another matter. But to lead ♠Q was obviously a bad move when you and declarer hold almost all the hcp. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
PMetsch Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 For those that pass the 1NT, what is west's opening lead? I would lead a high club (the one that asks count, so K?). After club count is confirmed I switch to a spade. The problem is that after declarer wins the spade king, he will run 4 hearts. I have to discard 2 times so I like to know if it should be a club and a spade or two spades. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 The correct lead from AKQx is the Q that ask partner to signal with the J. seems south can be restrickted to 2 tricks in 1NT, but finding the ♦ cash before ♣s is not so easy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 some play Q asks for unblock on of the jack, and king asks for attitude. THat is "standard" in north america. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted June 8, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 Our result was 2♣ + 2, so -130. We weren't complaining. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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