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Speaking about Karen Walker:

she wrote a series of articles for the acbl bulletin a while back about bidding 5-6 hands with limited opening high card count values (no mention of zars or ltc's, etc to my recollection). If memory serves me well, she presented the idea of playing a jump-reverse into the major as a method for showing such hands (versus splinters, min-splinters, etc). I am curious if anyone out there is playing this style?

 

 

She also has an entry in her web site about bidding weak 4-6 hands (4M-6m) after P's 1NT rebid. (e.g: 1D-1M-1N-3C = weak 4-6, to play in 3C. How many of you play this? Does anyone play the sequence 1NT-2C-2grapes-3m to play (a weak 4-6)? If yes, how do you show GI and GF 4-6 hands?

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I play both, but it then creates the need for discussion of how to show GI or GF 4-6 when playing 4-suit transfers with pre-acceptance. I have my own ideas, but they run opposite of "traditional wisdom" (is that an oxymoron?) or commonly accepted "expert" bidding.

 

I have yet to try the 5-6 jump-reverse that K.W. wrote about. Would be curious to hear from people who have or do play it.

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She also has an entry in her web site about bidding weak 4-6 hands (4M-6m) after P's 1NT rebid. (e.g: 1D-1M-1N-3C = weak 4-6, to play in 3C. How many of you play this? Does anyone play the sequence 1NT-2C-2grapes-3m to play (a weak 4-6)? If yes, how do you show GI and GF 4-6 hands?

Hi the 1 I most liek is french Roudi:

 

after 1m

1M-1NT

2 is to play direcly at the 2 level

2NT is transfer to 3, to play 3 os show a limit 4-6 in .

2 is a limit+ relay, partner responses are 4 steps showing support and strenght:

 

2 /2 /2 /2NT

min/min/max/max

2cM/3cM/3cM/2cM

 

Another way to handle is with XYZ:

 

after 1m

1M-1NT

2 is trransfer to 2 showing either a limit hand or passing and playing 2.

2 is a GF hand

3 is to play

 

 

You don't have problems with strong ones, because strong ones always start bidding the longest suit: the minor.

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agree that xyz makes life easier.

 

the issue of the weak 5-6 is more important to me: it indirectly caused me to get 0 points for my created reverse on BPO-00D, I think (qTxx,AK,AKQTxx,x. I maintained then and maintain now that the hand is too good for a 4C or 4D rebid. The idea of 3M as splinter is fine if that's the common interpretation. I might have suggested that bid instead of a reverse of 2H, in response to the hand BPO-OO2 D.

C'est la vie. (That's NYC street talk meaning that I want an appeals committee lololololol).

 

Muchas gracias, Sr. Fluffy

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