cherdano Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 [hv=d=s&v=e&s=sq8543hat875dat6c]133|100|Scoring: IMP1♠-2♣2♥-3♣3NT-4♣?[/hv]At IMP pairs, you open this 10 count as dealer while it still looks nice. 2♣ is 100% natural and forcing to game. Do you agree so far? What is your plan now? If you bid 4♦, partner will bid 4♠, then what? Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5? Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 7, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5? Roland Ok, partner still bids 4♣. What now? Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Arend, What is the dfference between 1S-3C and 1S-2C? Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 No, I do not agree with 3NT. Why didn't I bid 3♥ to show 5-5? Roland Ok, partner still bids 4♣. What now? Arend 5Clubs 4d is keycard for clubs so that is out.P has heard me show 5-5 in majors.P has shown 14 hcp and clubs and no interest in 3nt. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 7, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Arend, What is the dfference between 1S-3C and 1S-2C? Ben 3♣ would be Bergen. Are you tempted to pass when there was no invitational 3♣ available? Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
scoob Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 5♣ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 wow, I think 3N is really dreadful. Anyways, had I bid 3H and pard bid 4C I would now bid 4D. He could have the deck minus the diamond control so I have to show it to him. It is mandatory in that situation. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Are you tempted to pass when there was no invitational 3♣ available? Arend No I'm not. If partner doesn't have a hand that is good enough to force to game, he should have responded 1NT and not 2♣. His 4♣ sets the suit and asks me to cue bid. Consequently, I would bid 4♦, cue bid, and over his 4♠ cue bid (no heart control), I would bid 6♣. Here is a hand where I would just raise to 5♣: KQxxxKQxxxJxx--- His hand in the post should be something like AxxKQxAKQ10xxx Finally, you need a specific agreement here. Is 4♣ passable or not? For me it's not. Don't respond 2♣ unless you are 100% certain that you want to force to game, and with a hand that's weaker than the one above, bid 3NT. Example: AxxKxxAKJ10xxx Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 wow, I think 3N is really dreadful. Anyways, had I bid 3H and pard bid 4C I would now bid 4D. He could have the deck minus the diamond control so I have to show it to him. It is mandatory in that situation. We should have a game some day, Justin. Agree completely. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 What's the difference between 1S - 2C2H - 3C3any - 4C and 1S - 2C2H - 4C ? To me, the second sequence says clubs are seriously trumps, please cue bid even with a void. The first is looking for something different (not entirely sure what). I would guess the clubs are not as robust as the second sequence, so all I would do here is raise to 5C. p.s. I would have rebid 3H last round as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 His hand in the post should be something like AxxKQxAKQ10xxx With the above D holding Partner may have rebid 3nt over 3H or made picture jump of 4clubs over 2H rebid of opener. We see this issue all time in 2/1. Players think 2/1 means keeping the bidding low (conserving space) with all possible slam hands. More important priority should be describing one's hand, even if that means making a space consuming jump with 4C here. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 4D, to show ♦A. 3NT was completely wrong, only novice would bid like that. If pd's ♣ were good (plus a sure entry), why don't play some level of ♣ contract. If ♣ were not good, where did you find the 9 tricks? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 why didn't I rebid 3H?now in impossible situation, but might as well show the diamond ace, P doesn't need trump support from me on this bidding.lol, P keeps saying "tell me more", can I pass 5C?maybe there is some value in playing (no throwing rocks, please) strong jump-shifts. There are just some hands that one needs to be able to "get off one's chest". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 I might bid 3♦ to show the void :D. after 4♣ it looks easy, you have 2 aces, that might be a lot, bid 4♦, and after 4♠ bid 5♥ :). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 7, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Okok, I guess I shouldn't have posted this. My (pickup) partner bid 4♦ then passed 4♠...I had ♠KJ ♥x ♦Qxx ♣AKQJTxxx. 4♠ was not without play, but certainly more difficult than 6♣ (and went down) :P I suppose I should have bid 4♣, but I wasnt sure whether this should show this hand type, or an even stronger one. Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 after your partner cuebids 4D for you you can just bid blackwood. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 Yeah and he might answer 6♣: even number fo aces with ♣ void :lol: BTW I saw this bidding from a pro-client pair last month: 1♠-2♣3♣-4NT6♦* Showing even number and ♦void, the pro was of course burning in flames, but curiosly the sponsor wasn't, how could she?. She was just holding: ♠AKQ10xx♥x♦-♣KJ10xxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
cherdano Posted June 8, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 after your partner cuebids 4D for you you can just bid blackwood. I think if he passes 4♠ he might as well pass 4NT -- no seriously, we were playing rkcb 0341 and expected him to rkcb himself with 2 aces, but sign-off with one. Arend Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted June 8, 2005 Report Share Posted June 8, 2005 My thoughts reading the first few posts were the same as Frances Hinden's - why didn't pard just rebid 4♣ at his 2nd turn? IMO my void indicates that we are likely to have at least one club loser so I'll content myself with 5♣. And yes, the 3N rebid was horrible. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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