MickyB Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 When the opps play that a pass forces a XX on this sequence, I believe it is standard for 1N-X-P-2♦ to be weak, and 1N-X-P-PXX-P-2♣-2♦ to be stronger. In that case, what does 1N-X-P-PXX-P-P-2♦ show - two places to play perhaps? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Echognome Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Quoting from the Meckstroth book: "LHO passes which is alerted as forcing opener to redouble and may include a wide range of hands. Our partnership style in these auctions when the opponents pass or redouble conventionally is that Eric's pass shows values and creates a force. He is expected to run immediately with a bad hand. (2♦/2♥/2♠ show at least a five-card suit and he bids 2♣ with either either clubs or no long suit, scramble style)." And on the hand in question Rodwell passes and when the redouble gets back to him he bids 2♥ with ♠ 10xx ♥ 1098xx ♦ Qx ♣ xxx. Was he just gambling that his RHO would take out? I don't know. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mr1303 Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 Generally the latter suggests a loss of bottle..... The second sequence has never come up before, since I always run first on weak hands (even if pass doesn't force a redouble). And once I say that I'm happy to defend against 1N X I'm even more happy to defend against 1NT XX Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 if my pard x'd the nt in #2, my 2d would say i think they're on for 1nt xx'd and i have 5+ diamonds, let's play this one and redeal Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 7, 2005 Report Share Posted June 7, 2005 There are times where you will let them scape 1NT before you have to :o. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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