MickyB Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 Jilly's 6-5 topic got me wondering - what does an auction like P-1♥-P-3♥, 3♠ show - without discussion (expert p), or in your preferred methods? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 A good 3S opener, or maybe a little better. Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 I have spades, I don't have balanced hand, and if you have singleton ♠ you can be sure we better play in a minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 A good 3S opener, or maybe a little better. Peter Althou it is not very clear, the problem comes when you are passed hand Peter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 Jilly's 6-5 topic got me wondering - what does an auction like P-1♥-P-3♥, 3♠ show - without discussion (expert p), or in your preferred methods? In my partnership that's a 2-suiter spades + minor. Cannot be 1-suiter because we always open those regardless of suit quality... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MickyB Posted June 5, 2005 Author Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 Ok thanks for the replies so far. I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments? When people are saying two suiters, what counts? 6-4, 5-5, 5-6? Any suggestions as to how an agreement to cover this situation could be phrased? Something like, "A passed hand opposite a passing partner bidding a new suit at the 3 level without jumping"? Cheers! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 At imps, this sequence to me shows an opening 2S/3S preempt that was in some way "flawed", and for me the biggest flaw would be a void and some defensive potential and less (under my methods) than an opening hand. I would expect partner to have: KJ9xxx(x), void, Axx(x), xxx or along those lines. At MPs, it could be darn near anything provided the 3H is preemptive. :) WinstonM Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 This is a very good question. Alot depends on partnership style. First is a hand like JTxxxxx --- Kxxx Kx a preempt? If not, maybe it is a hand like this. As you said a hand flawed for a preempt. If you preempt most hands with 6 or 7 spades then it is probably more useful to play it as 5-5 or 6-5. This is how I like to play it, as I think it is more frequent. Any agreement is a good one here, but most partnerships dont have one. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 5, 2005 Report Share Posted June 5, 2005 I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments? 2 weeks ago I got this auction: 2♠-ps-ps-3NT4♦-ps-4♠-Xps-ps-ps And I got -690 Because the opener was having a 6♠-7♦ :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 6, 2005 Report Share Posted June 6, 2005 If you preempt most hands with 6 or 7 spades then it is probably more useful to play it as 5-5 or 6-5. This is how I like to play it, as I think it is more frequent. Any agreement is a good one here, but most partnerships dont have one. Having an agreement is very nice, but actually you don't need one, with a pickup partner on BBO being south, I got recently something like...: ♠xx♥AQxx♦KJxx♣Qxx N - E - S -Wps -ps -1♦ -1NT2♠ -ps -??? I assumed he was having 5♠ and a scape somewhere wich surelly was ♦. Probably 2NT or 3♣ was a better bid in case it is ♣s the other suit, but we played a decent 3♦ on a 4-4 fit if I remember correctly. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 6, 2005 Report Share Posted June 6, 2005 But if there are some hands with 6-7 spades that partner will pass, then I don't think you can pull to 3D. besides why cant he have a black 2 suiter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted June 6, 2005 Report Share Posted June 6, 2005 He couldn't,. and I now beleive 3♦ was a mistake. But pulling wasn't. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted June 6, 2005 Report Share Posted June 6, 2005 I gave this question to a player I respect, and his opinion was that 6-5s are often best off opening a weak 2 and making another move later. Obviously this diverges from conventional wisdom. Any comments? One swallow doesn't make a summer, but at the recent English Spring Bank Holiday Swiss Teams, one player was dealt AQ9xxx-xx10xxxx in first seat, vul against not.At every table where I saw the result except one (7 tables) this was opened a weak 2S, passed out, scoring +200 when spades were 3-3. My partner passed, and we then had a swift auction to 5C for +600 (6C had play), as I held KxxxxAxxxAQJx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted June 6, 2005 Report Share Posted June 6, 2005 With 6-5 I tend to pass, but admit with the hand posted above i would open 3S since all my values are in spades. I would never open 2 though. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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