lamford Posted August 16, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 It's so obvious what is meant to happen here, it really is simply waste of time arguing otherwise - and to be honest, other than you, does anyone really care about this? I'd rather the rulemakers focus on things that actually matter.I don't agree it is at all obvious. The card was a penalty card, and was led rather than exposed. The TD is told to see Law 57. It beggars belief that you should say that he shouldn't do that because there is no previous trick. Do people really care about any errors in the Laws? You would have no penalty at all for a lead during the auction. Next time partner seems to be thinking about sacrificing or making a lightner double in the pass-out seat, I will get that lead on the table, both to silence him and to tell him what I am going to lead. And you just say "it's so obvious what is meant to happen here." I presume you mean that there is no further penalty on East. That for sure is wrong, and the alternative ruling is that the enforced pass by East during the auction has damaged the non-offenders, and that East (were he not obliged to pass) would have to carefully avoid taking any advantage of the UI of the lead during the auction, and would have a clear LA of pulling to 4C, which would be 500 for NS. CC and Ch appealed against the -2200 and SB appealed against the 3 VP fine. The AC decided in a nutshell thatD. Director’s OptionThe Director rules any doubtful point in favour of the non-offending side. He seeks to restore equity. If in his judgement it is probable that a non-offending side has been damaged by an irregularity for which these laws provide no rectification he adjusts the score (see Law 12). The AC agreed that it was doubtful whether the Laws intended Law 57 to apply here (even though they say that it does). But the TD was right to rule in favour of the non-offending side. In addition, he had the right to restore equity, and that would include East pulling the redouble to 4Cx and going for 500. In any case, if there were director error, the +2200 would stand for NS, and EW would be treated as non-offending and get +500. All the scores resulted in the same tournament result, a win for SB's team. The principle in sport of only overturning a "clear and obvious error" was followed and the score stood. The 3 IMPs fine for SB stood as well even though he argued that he had not breached Law 74B5, but the AC decided he had. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 16, 2020 Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 The AC agreed that it was doubtful whether the Laws intended Law 57 to apply here (even though they say that it does). You have an AC that cannot read and understand the laws, and which fails to distinguish between the auction period where Law 24 applies and play period where Law 57 applies? Terrific Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smerriman Posted August 16, 2020 Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 I don't agree it is at all obvious. The card was a penalty card, and was led rather than exposed. The TD is told to see Law 57. It beggars belief that you should say that he shouldn't do that because there is no previous trick. Do people really care about any errors in the Laws?You are told to see law 57; you see that it cannot possibly apply to this situation. You would have no penalty at all for a lead during the auction. Next time partner seems to be thinking about sacrificing or making a lightner double in the pass-out seat, I will get that lead on the table, both to silence him and to tell him what I am going to lead. And you just say "it's so obvious what is meant to happen here." I presume you mean that there is no further penalty on East.None of that is true in the slightest. If you get any form of advantage out of leading prior to the auction completing, then you would be penalised with an weighted score based on what your partner might have done differently if you hadn't (50E). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 16, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 You are told to see law 57; you see that it cannot possibly apply to this situation.So what do you do then? Go back to law 50 and wonder why you were told to "see law 57". Note that it did not say "but see Law 57" which it might do if you just needed to check that this did not change the ruling. Essentially it says that Law 57 will tell you how to handle a major penalty card that was led rather than dropped or exposed. And it does not say, as it might have done, "led after the play period started". One interpretation (and I am not saying it is the only one) is that Law 57 tells you that a premature lead gets draconian penalties, with declarer having four options. It would be illogical if the penalty was applied whenever partner has not played to tricks 1-11, and the player leads prematurely to tricks 2-12 respectively, but is NOT applied when the player leads prematurely to trick 1 and partner has (obviously) not yet played (to trick 0 if you like). None of that is true in the slightest. If you get any form of advantage out of leading prior to the auction completing, then you would be penalised with an weighted score based on what your partner might have done differently if you hadn't (50E).You (and others) seem to be advocating no penalty here and that the six of clubs is led and East can play any card he chooses. I think that the minimum adjustment is that East's enforced pass as a result of the premature lead has damaged the non-offending side and it is then up to the TD to decide on an adjusted score which restores equity to the non-offending side. I can live with 4Cx-2 by East, NS+500. Are you saying that there should be no penalty at all, even though EW have certainly gained "some form of advantage"? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smerriman Posted August 16, 2020 Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 You (and others) seem to be advocating no penalty here and that the six of clubs is led and East can play any card he chooses. I think that the minimum adjustment is that East's enforced pass as a result of the premature lead has damaged the non-offending side and it is then up to the TD to decide on an adjusted score which restores equity to the non-offending side. I can live with 4Cx-2 by East, NS+500. Are you saying that there should be no penalty at all, even though EW have certainly gained "any form of advantage".Did you read what I wrote? I specifically said that if they gained an advantage, they would be penalised with a weighted score based on East would have bid otherwise. Which part of my post suggested I advocated no penalty? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smerriman Posted August 16, 2020 Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 So what do you do then? Go back to law 50 and wonder why you were told to "see law 57". Note that it did not say "but see Law 57" which it might do if you just needed to check that this did not change the ruling. Essentially it says that Law 57 will tell you how to handle a major penalty card that was led rather than dropped or exposed. And it does not say, as it might have done, "led after the play period started)". One interpretation (and I am not saying it is the only one) is that Law 57 tells you that a premature lead gets draconian penalties, with declarer having four options. It would be illogical if the penalty was applied whenever partner has not played to tricks 1-11, and the player leads prematurely to tricks 2-12, but is NOT applied when the player leads prematurely to trick 1 and partner has (obviously) not yet played.Yes, I follow rule 50. Law 57, as is very clear by its wording, adjusts for situations where you have played before your partner was meant to play. You very well know that, despite trying to make it appear not obvious. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 16, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 Yes, I follow rule 50. Law 57, as is very clear by its wording, adjusts for situations where you have played before your partner was meant to play. You very well know that, despite trying to make it appear not obvious.So you go back to Law 50, even though you are not told to do so? Good set of laws these. Don't you then get caught in a loop where you are then told to see law 57 again? Or as you supposed to remember that this part of the maze is a dead end? I really think the average TD will not do that, and will just ask herself:a) is the six of clubs a penalty card? Yesb) Was it led? YesTherefore apply Law 57. As best you can.The TD is not going to try to work out the intent of Law 57 and whether it logically applies here. If you only apply Law 50, you HAVE to adjust for the enforced pass benefiting the offending side. Any possibility of East pulling the redouble to 4C has disappeared as a result of the lead during the auction. And please don't tell me what I know or don't know. I don't put words in your mouth. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smerriman Posted August 16, 2020 Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 In which case you HAVE to adjust for the enforced pass benefiting the offending side. Any possibility of East pulling the redouble to 4C has disappeared as a result of the lead during the auction.I've already told you twice I would adjust for that, despite your repeated implications that I'm saying not to. I'm amazed you can read the rules so clearly but not my posts. I can't be bothered arguing semantics anymore; Law 50 is the most sensible rule to apply; if a single word would convince you otherwise, fine, change it, who cares. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 16, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 16, 2020 I've already told you twice I would adjust for that, despite your repeated implications that I'm saying not to. I'm amazed you can read the rules so clearly but not my posts.There is some crossover in posts, sorry, with my responding without reading something written in the meantime. I am pleased we agree with adjusting for the enforced pass by East, but I don't think anyone else advocated that. I would still expect the average TD to rule under Law 57 without giving the matter a second thought. When the Law tells him "see Law 57" and Law 57 gives him sensible options, he applies them. It is like a bid out of turn. The TD just goes through the flow chart without stopping to analyse the situation. And the change to Law 50, if they intend premature leads during the auction to be treated differently to premature leads during the play would be the simple (see Law 57 for a card led during the play) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
axman Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 In the hope that some candidate hoping to become a qualified tournament director will find this useful: We are here in the middle of an auction when a single card has been exposed by one of the players so we go straight toLAW 24 - CARD EXPOSED OR LED DURING THE AUCTIONand rule that:every such card be placed face up on the table until the auction ends. then we judge(!) that the card was exposed in a deliberate act apparently intended as a lead, proceed withLaw 24B. Single Card ...... Prematurely Ledand rule:offender’s partner must pass when next it is his turn to call (see Law 72C when a pass damages the non-offending side). Now we must wait until the conclusion of the auction, then we note that the offender has become a defender, go to Law24E Defendersand rule every such card becomes a penalty card (see Laws 50 and 51). At this time the card has not (yet) been led so we go directly toLAW 50 - DISPOSITION OF PENALTY CARD No headache, no inconsistency, no problem: Examination test passed. Good luck! I think that the terrain is treacherous. The law does not speak to the TD judging a card a lead. It says 24B:…or is any card prematurely led in other words it was prematurely led or it wasn't. The definitions speak to what is a lead:Lead — the first card played to a trick. Which requires the question, 'was a trick in progress?' and the answer is no- the card was not played to a trick. The definition of trick: Trick — the unit by which the outcome of the contract is determined, composed unless flawed of four cards, one contributed by each player in rotation, beginning with the lead. As such, the ruling turns on the identity of the card- non honor goes to 24A while an honor goes to 24B. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 I think that the terrain is treacherous. The law does not speak to the TD judging a card a lead. It says 24B:…or is any card prematurely led in other words it was prematurely led or it wasn't. The definitions speak to what is a lead:Lead — the first card played to a trick. Which requires the question, 'was a trick in progress?' and the answer is no- the card was not played to a trick. The definition of trick: Trick — the unit by which the outcome of the contract is determined, composed unless flawed of four cards, one contributed by each player in rotation, beginning with the lead. As such, the ruling turns on the identity of the card- non honor goes to 24A while an honor goes to 24B.The question in Law 24, whether a single card below the rank of an honour was led or not, is a matter of judgement by the Director and depends on the manner in which it was exposed.(This is the only point in Law 24 where an inexperienced Director can get astray) If the Director judges that it was faced accidentally he applies Law 24AIf the Director judges that it was faced deliberately he applies Law 24BOtherwise the Director applies Law 24C. Then no further action is taken by the Director until the auction is completed! after which he will apply either Law 24D or Law 24E, and in case go to Law 50 or 51. Specifically he shall never apply Law 57 in this situation because there is no reference to Law 57 from Law 24! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
smerriman Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 Specifically he shall never apply Law 57 in this situation because there is no reference to Law 57 from Law 24!I don't understand why you keep saying this. Law 24 refers to Law 50, which refers to Law 57. Is there some rule that says that if X refers to Y, and Y refers to Z, then can you never apply Z in the situation of X? For example, Law 32 about double/redouble out of rotation says to see Law 36, which refers to Law 72C - the director is certainly allowed to use that law, despite there being no reference to it in Law 32. While I don't disagree about which law should be applied, I don't follow the logic in that one sentence at all. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 I don't understand why you keep saying this. Law 24 refers to Law 50, which refers to Law 57. Is there some rule that says that if X refers to Y, and Y refers to Z, then can you never apply Z in the situation of X? For example, Law 32 about double/redouble out of rotation says to see Law 36, which refers to Law 72C - the director is certainly allowed to use that law, despite there being no reference to it in Law 32. While I don't disagree about which law should be applied, I don't follow the logic in that one sentence at all.Here we are back to the point in Law 24 where inexperienced directors might get astray. The only reference in Law 50 to Law 57 is in the first line: "A card prematurely exposed (but not led, see Law 57) by a defender".The simplest way to refute your comment is probably to remind you that the card was not prematurely led by a defender, simply because there was no defender at the time of that irregularity. (This is why we enter Law 24 in the first place).The offender only became a defender when the auction was completed. Of course "X refers to Y, and Y refers to Z" implies that X also refers to Z unless the chain is broken in some way. Here the chain is broken because the link from Y to Z depends on a condition that is not satisfied in the link from X to Y. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 I don't understand why you keep saying this. Law 24 refers to Law 50, which refers to Law 57. Is there some rule that says that if X refers to Y, and Y refers to Z, then can you never apply Z in the situation of X? For example, Law 32 about double/redouble out of rotation says to see Law 36, which refers to Law 72C - the director is certainly allowed to use that law, despite there being no reference to it in Law 32. While I don't disagree about which law should be applied, I don't follow the logic in that one sentence at all.The director uses Law 24 to decide that the six of clubs is a penalty card, and notes that this example is Law 24B, so, as he did, he indicates that East must pass when next it is his turn to call. He did read out all of 24B at the table. He then finds, or hopefully already knows, that he must find out what to do with it, probably by Law 50:LAW 50 - DISPOSITION OF PENALTY CARDA card prematurely exposed (but not led, see Law 57) by a defender is a penalty card unless the Director designates otherwise (see Law 49 and Law 72C may apply). For completeness I don't accept for one moment pran's argument that this was not "a card led by a defender", and in any case, the WBFLC have carefully put "but not led, seee Law 57" to qualify card, not to qualify "card exposed by a defender". That is a further error, or a further example of sloppiness (am I bovvered - Catherine Tate), in that a card prematurely led by declarer is not subject to Law 57 at all. That clause should probably read: A card prematurely exposed by a defender (but not led during the play period, see Law 57) is a penalty card unless the Director designates otherwise (see Law 49 and Law 72C may apply). The diligent director looks at law 49 and law 72C and decides it wasn't exposed, but the player could well have been aware that leading it would work to his side's benefit. He also notes the clause "but not led", which tells most directors that this is not the clause to apply, because the card clearly was led (albeit during the auction). He therefore goes to Law 57. He sees (part of) the heading "Premature Lead", and being a bit of a numbskull thinks he is in the right place now. He starts reading. He notes that the player has indeed led to the next trick. He might reflect (and you say that he should) that there is no "current trick" so the clause "before his partner has played to the current trick" means that he is in the wrong place. He might just think this is just part of the regular sloppy wording that he has seen throughout the laws in his brief tenure as TD, and assumes that "if any" should have been added at the end for logical sense. He might look to see whether there is another section for dealing with a penalty card which was caused by a premature opening lead but only finds Law 50 which has the proviso "but not led". Most TDs would conclude that Law 57 applies because it was a premature lead and the player has indeed led to the next trick. To rule that this was director error would be inappropriate. I am not arguing what the WBFLC probably intended, but there are certainly no grounds for applying Law 50 and ignoring "but not led, see Law 57". I can accept that the Laws do not tell the TD what to do in this situation, in which case he makes the best of a bad job. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 The director uses Law 24 to decide that the six of clubs is a penalty card, and notes that this example is Law 24B, so, as he did, he indicates that East must pass when next it is his turn to call. He did read out all of 24B at the table. He then finds, or hopefully already knows, that he must find out what to do with it, probably by Law 50:LAW 50 - DISPOSITION OF PENALTY CARDA card prematurely exposed (but not led, see Law 57) by a defender is a penalty card unless the Director designates otherwise (see Law 49 and Law 72C may apply). The diligent director looks at law 49 and law 72C and decides it wasn't exposed, but the player could well have been aware that leading it would work to his side's benefit. He also notes the clause "but not led", which tells most directors that this is not the clause to apply, because the card clearly was led (albeit during the auction). e therefore goes to Law 57. He sees (part of) the heading "Premature Lead", and being a bit of a numbskull thinks he is in the right place now. He starts reading. He notes that the player has indeed led to the next trick. He might reflect (and you say he should that he should) that there is no "current trick" so the clause "before his partner has played to the current trick" means that he is in the wrong place. He might just think this is just part of the regular sloppy wording that he has seen throughout the laws in his brief tenure as TD. He might look to see whether there is a section for dealing with a penalty card which was caused by a premature opening lead but only finds Law 50 which has the proviso "but not led". Most TDs would conclude that Law 57 applies because it was a premature lead and the player has indeed led to the next trick. To rule that this was director error would be inappropriate. I am not arguing what the WBFLC probably intended, but there are certainly no grounds for applying Law 50 and ignoring "but not led, see Law 57". I can accept that the Laws do not tell the TD what to do in this situation, in which case he makes the best of a bad job.The Director made one major error: He didn't wait until the conclusion of the auction before using Law 24D or Law 24E.Alternativelyif the auction was already concluded at the time he was called to the table he apparently failed to realize the importance of the fact that the irregularity was committed by a player before that player became (in this case) a defender. Having read the various tales from this club I consider either of these errors excusable, but I cannot understand using such an ignorant AC? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 The Director made one major error: He didn't wait until the conclusion of the auction before using Law 24D or Law 24E.Alternativelyif the auction was already concluded at the time he was called to the table he apparently failed to realize the importance of the fact that the irregularity was committed by a player before that player became (in this case) a defender. Having read the various tales from this club I consider either of these errors excusable, but I cannot understand using such an ignorant AC?I would suggest you re-read the OP. OO stated: "OK, that means that your partner is silenced, CC, and if you become a defender there will be further penalties; and the fact that SB originally selected pass is UI to RR." "Everyone passed, and now SB did OO's job for him." Although it should have been OO dealing with the premature lead, not SB (for which he was fined 3 IMPs), he had waited until the auction ended. I suggest that the following may be of interest to you: jhenrikj may also benefit, as he thought this was a LOOT! Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 I would suggest you re-read the OP. OO stated: "OK, that means that your partner is silenced, CC, and if you become a defender there will be further penalties; and the fact that SB originally selected pass is UI to RR." "Everyone passed, and now SB did OO's job for him." Although it should have been OO dealing with the premature lead, not SB (for which he was fined 3 IMPs), he had waited until the auction ended. I suggest that the following may be of interest to you: jhenrikj may also benefit, as he thought this was a LOOT! You never fail to surprise with your ignorance: The state at the conclusion of the auction is: North is declarer in the contract: 3NT XXWest has a major penalty card: ♣6East has the opening lead but must await the decision by North on his selection among the alternatives specified in Law 50D2. Do you think that you are able to sort out the correct ruling further from there on? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 You never fail to surprise with your ignorance: The state at the conclusion of the auction is: North is declarer in the contract: 3NT XXWest has a major penalty card: ♣6East has the opening lead but must await the decision by North on his selection among the alternatives specified in Law 50D2. Do you think that you are able to sort out the correct ruling further from there on?You never fail to surprise with your ignorance: The state at the conclusion of the auction is: South is declarer in the contract: 3NT XXWest has a major penalty card: ♣6West has the opening lead and he is told by the director that the six of clubs is a MPC and must be led (as it has already been led). The next question is what to tell South and East about the disposition of the MPC. And whether to adjust because of the enforced pass if he decides that Law 50 applies but Law 57 does not. Do you think that you are able to sort out the correct ruling further from there on? If I were you, I would read the introduction to the Laws again, in particular:Declarer: the player who, for the side that makes the final bid, first bid the denomination named in the final bid. He becomes declarer when the opening lead is faced <snip? Now it is true that North was the first person to redouble, but that is not a "denomination". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
axman Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 The question in Law 24, whether a single card below the rank of an honour was led or not, is a matter of judgement by the Director and depends on the manner in which it was exposed.(This is the only point in Law 24 where an inexperienced Director can get astray) If the Director judges that it was faced accidentally he applies Law 24AIf the Director judges that it was faced deliberately he applies Law 24BOtherwise the Director applies Law 24C. Then no further action is taken by the Director until the auction is completed! after which he will apply either Law 24D or Law 24E, and in case go to Law 50 or 51. Specifically he shall never apply Law 57 in this situation because there is no reference to Law 57 from Law 24!If the law was concerned with whether a card was exposed accidently the TD would so judge. But the law 24 is not concerned with whether a card was exposed accidentally and so there is no need by law for the TD to so judge; it is concerned about a card being led, or not. And the two are not equivalent. in regard to 'because there is no reference to ' references can be merely a reminder- that is, a provision of law applies when it applies- whether or not there is a reference 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 You never fail to surprise with your ignorance: The state at the conclusion of the auction is: South is declarer in the contract: 3NT XXWest has a major penalty card: ♣6West has the opening lead and he is told by the director that the six of clubs is a MPC and must be led (as it has already been led). The next question is what to tell South and East about the disposition of the MPC. And whether to adjust because of the enforced pass if he decides that Law 50 applies but Law 57 does not. Sorry, I overlooked the opening 1NT bid, so South is indeed declarer. The only change in the story is that West, who now has become a defender and in turn to make the opening lead, must lead his ♣6 as instructed in Law 50D1a(Technically this card has not already been led!) Then of course, we have:C. Awareness of Potential DamageIf the Director determines that an offender could have been aware at the time of his irregularity that it could well damage the non-offending side, he shall require the auction and play to continue (if not completed). At the conclusion of play the Director awards an adjusted score if he considers the offending side has gained an advantage through the irregularity.I fail to see how West at the time he originally exposed the ♣6 could well have been aware that this irregularity could well damage the North/South side? Are the players involved capable of such foresight? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 I fail to see how West at the time he originally exposed the ♣6 could well have been aware that this irregularity could well damage the North/South side? Are the players involved capable of such foresight?West did not "expose" the six of clubs. He led it because he mistakenly thought the auction was over. And he could have been aware that this would tell East that he had correctly interpreted his "unusual" double of 3NT which must, by a passed hand, ask for a club lead. So, the foresight is not great. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 Sequence of events: 1. West led a card when North, who would be last to call in the auction if he passed, had not yet called.2. North called the director in his usual boorish manner (frankly if SB were a member of my club, he would either have long since changed his ways or he would be an ex-member of my club).3. When the director arrived, North made a ruling, for which the director properly fined him - although I'm not sure the fine was big enough.4. Now, as to the ruling... a. Law 24 applies. The card is left face up on the table while the auction continues. East has UI, but I don't see that mattering in the auction.b. The auction continues: SB, North, redoubles, and East perforce (Law 24B) passes. South and West pass.c. The contract is 3NTXX by South, putting West on lead.d. The exposed card (♣6) at this point becomes a major penalty card; West must lead it.e. The card was "prematurely led" - Law 24 says so.f. West's intent was clearly to lead to trick one.g. South, Declarer, elected under Law 57A (yes, it applies, in spite of the lawmakers' failure to clarify in this law that it does; see below) to have East play his lowest club.h. The trick is won in dummy.i. Now South makes the contract (there was a defensive error that helped).j. SB, boorish to the last, violates "best behaviour at bridge" yet again. OO should have given him an additional penalty, perhaps enough to offset his "win". IMO, the first sentence of Law 57A should read "When a player leads to the first trick during the auction, and later becomes a defender, or a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick, or plays out of turn before his partner has played, the card so led or played becomes a major penalty card, and declarer selects one of the following options…" I commend this change to the WBFLC (not that I expect any of them read this forum). It would seem that Law 81C2 applies here: "The Director’s duties and powers normally include also the following:…2. to administer and interpret these Laws and to advise the players of their rights and responsibilities thereunder." The emphasis in that last is mine. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted August 17, 2020 Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 Sequence of events: 1. West led a card when North, who would be last to call in the auction if he passed, had not yet called.2. North called the director in his usual boorish manner (frankly if SB were a member of my club, he would either have long since changed his ways or he would be an ex-member of my club).3. When the director arrived, North made a ruling, for which the director properly fined him - although I'm not sure the fine was big enough.4. Now, as to the ruling... a. Law 24 applies. The card is left face up on the table while the auction continues. East has UI, but I don't see that mattering in the auction.b. The auction continues: SB, North, redoubles, and East perforce (Law 24B) passes. South and West pass.c. The contract is 3NTXX by South, putting West on lead.d. The exposed card (♣6) at this point becomes a major penalty card; West must lead it.e. The card was "prematurely led" - Law 24 says so.f. West's intent was clearly to lead to trick one.g. South, Declarer, elected under Law 57A (yes, it applies, in spite of the lawmakers' failure to clarify in this law that it does; see below) to have East play his lowest club.h. The trick is won in dummy.i. Now South makes the contract (there was a defensive error that helped).j. SB, boorish to the last, violates "best behaviour at bridge" yet again. OO should have given him an additional penalty, perhaps enough to offset his "win". IMO, the first sentence of Law 57A should read "When a player leads to the first trick during the auction, and later becomes a defender, or a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick, or plays out of turn before his partner has played, the card so led or played becomes a major penalty card, and declarer selects one of the following options…" I commend this change to the WBFLC (not that I expect any of them read this forum). It would seem that Law 81C2 applies here: "The Director’s duties and powers normally include also the following:…2. to administer and interpret these Laws and to advise the players of their rights and responsibilities thereunder." The emphasis in that last is mine.Please clarify exactly and in detail what (in your opinion) makes a single card below the rank of an honour that is exposed during the auction a card led rather than just a card exposed The way I understand the laws this distinction is left for the Director to judge, of course after taking into consideration any apparent intention revealed by the offender. PS. I cannot find any justification for your allegation that Law 57 applies and would appreciate a foundation for your allegation when you claim a lawmakers' failure to clarify in this law that it does Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 Please clarify exactly and in detail what (in your opinion) makes a single card below the rank of an honour that is exposed during the auction a card led rather than just a card exposed The way I understand the laws this distinction is left for the Director to judge, of course after taking into consideration any apparent intention revealed by the offender. PS. I cannot find any justification for your allegation that Law 57 applies and would appreciate a foundation for your allegation when you claim a lawmakers' failure to clarify in this law that it doesI don't intend to reply to anything else you write on this subject, other than to repeat that. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted August 17, 2020 Author Report Share Posted August 17, 2020 Sequence of events: 1. West led a card when North, who would be last to call in the auction if he passed, had not yet called.2. North called the director in his usual boorish manner (frankly if SB were a member of my club, he would either have long since changed his ways or he would be an ex-member of my club).3. When the director arrived, North made a ruling, for which the director properly fined him - although I'm not sure the fine was big enough.4. Now, as to the ruling... a. Law 24 applies. The card is left face up on the table while the auction continues. East has UI, but I don't see that mattering in the auction.b. The auction continues: SB, North, redoubles, and East perforce (Law 24B) passes. South and West pass.c. The contract is 3NTXX by South, putting West on lead.d. The exposed card (♣6) at this point becomes a major penalty card; West must lead it.e. The card was "prematurely led" - Law 24 says so.f. West's intent was clearly to lead to trick one.g. South, Declarer, elected under Law 57A (yes, it applies, in spite of the lawmakers' failure to clarify in this law that it does; see below) to have East play his lowest club.h. The trick is won in dummy.i. Now South makes the contract (there was a defensive error that helped).j. SB, boorish to the last, violates "best behaviour at bridge" yet again. OO should have given him an additional penalty, perhaps enough to offset his "win". IMO, the first sentence of Law 57A should read "When a player leads to the first trick during the auction, and later becomes a defender, or a defender leads to the next trick before his partner has played to the current trick, or plays out of turn before his partner has played, the card so led or played becomes a major penalty card, and declarer selects one of the following options…" I commend this change to the WBFLC (not that I expect any of them read this forum). It would seem that Law 81C2 applies here: "The Director’s duties and powers normally include also the following:…2. to administer and interpret these Laws and to advise the players of their rights and responsibilities thereunder." The emphasis in that last is mine.Thank you. Good to see some sanity prevail. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.