YER BID

[Double !]

Both sides are RED

 

You hold:

 

♠ xx

♥ Jx

♦ 97xx

♣ KQJ9x

 

Lho opens 2♠: weak 2 bid

Partner bids 3♥

rho passes.

YER BID!

 

1) at IMPS

 

2) at matchpoints

 

thank you in advance

[han]

I pass at both matchpoints (obvious imo) and IMPs (also clear).

[pbleighton]

"I pass at both matchpoints (obvious imo) and IMPs (also clear)."

 

Agree, except that it isn't that clear to me red at IMPs. There are days when I would bid 4H. Pd should have an excellent hand for a direct seat 3H call red, and my hand *could* be golden.

 

I would always pass at matchpoints.

 

Peter

[luke warm]

it seems pretty clear to me.. pass (would partner double with *real* strength?)

[keylime]

Pass-a-roo-skie.

[Fluffy]

I said this before, but the strenght needed to overcall a preeptive is a aprtnership agreement, and oneof the most important ones.

 

on my agreements we are close togame and would bid 4 at IMPs.

[hotShot]

pass in both cases.

[Guest Jlall]

pass, tho 4H could be right at imps

[pclayton]

Pass at both, but at IMPs I'm more worried about missing 3N than 4♥ because 1) The lack of a raise on my right tells me that pard could have a stop, 2) hearts rate to split poorly, 3) the clubs may be a nice source of tricks.

[Double !]

I wish to thank all respondents so far.

I agree that Pass at matchpoints rates to be the percentage bid, and that Vul, at imps, there might be more to consider.

 

The underlying theme of this posting was only partly related to the hand in question, but raised the issue of the following. (I hope I am able to express the question as intended.)

 

When partner competes/ takes direct action over an opp's 2 or 3-bid, To what degree is partner taking action based solely on his/her hand, and what assumptions is partner making about your hand/ is partner assuming that you have X amount of values and is partly including these values when deciding whether or not to take action?

 

For example. one suggestion that was made to me a long, long time ago was to assume that partner had about 6 points when taking direct action (and that partner should then deduct about 6 pts from his/her hand before deciding whether or not to bid or how much to bid. (In balancing seat, assume partner has about 9 pts. etc., etc.) So, the question becomes, in terms of the sample hand posted, how much of that hand did partner assume or already bid when partner overcalled 3H? Do you really have much more than partner already assumed?

 

Another approach to this situation might be to say, Partner contracted for 9 tricks, how many more might my hand be worth? In other words, to NOT base the decision to respond or not to respond on the premise that partner presumed certain values in your hand when partner bid 3H. I hope I've presented the question clearly.

 

Because it leads to the following:

you hold something like ♠xxxx, ♥xxxx, ♦ Kxx, ♣ Ax

 

matchpoints, last round of 2-session stratified pairs, flight X, you are definitely in contention but you don't know whether you are 1st, 2nd, etc. at this point.

 

neither vul: rho passes, you pass, lho bids 3 clubs, partner bids 3 diamonds, and rho passes, YER BID (3NT anyone? Are these the perfect cards even though P might have presumed some values when bidding 3 diaminds?)

[luke warm]

Because it leads to the following:

you hold something like ♠xxxx, ♥xxxx, ♦ Kxx, ♣ Ax

 

matchpoints, last round of 2-session stratified pairs, flight X, you are definitely in contention but you don't know whether you are 1st, 2nd, etc. at this point.

 

neither vul: rho passes, you pass, lho bids 3 clubs, partner bids 3 diamonds, and rho passes, YER BID

i'm sorry, i don't see this as a big problem... that's not the same as saying whatever i do will be right, but it is matchpoints and i have to do something... with this hand in those circumstances, i'd pass

 

now had partner doubled and then pulled by 3h to 4d, i'd bid 5.. or 3h to 3s, i'd bid 4... but he didn't... i'm hoping to go positive at 3d... i'm also hoping every other player in my lho's seat opens 3c.. .who knows, they may not even be thru bidding

[Walddk]

I bid 3NT, because I respect an overcall at the 3-level. My (dream) partners always have:

 

Axx

Ax

AQxxxx

xx

 

 

3NT is not always a guarantee of success of course, but you can't win them all. Double first and then pull to 4♦ if I respond 3MA as luke warm suggests? No good, then we don't get to 3NT. This is pairs. I refuse to play 5 of a minor unless they twist my arms (alternatively, if we discover that we are wide open in one suit).

 

Roland

[luke warm]

no i meant if pard doubled instead of bidding 3d... if he doubles and i bid 3h and *then* he shows diamonds, i'll raise him to game

 

and you're right, 3nt might just be the right bid.. 3c bid made it tough

[pigpenz]

pass at both

[Guest Jlall]

3N with Kxx of diamonds and Ax of clubs. Those are great carsd

[Winstonm]

Pass at both though at imps I hate it...still what else can pard do with xx, AKxxxx, KQx, Ax? I can't force him to have "magic" cards.

 

WinstonM