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Unusual Auction


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[hv=pc=n&s=st987h5dkt8743ct9&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1n(Weak%20%5B12-14%5D)d(Penalty%20%5BA%20good%2015%2B%5D)p2d(Weak%20%5Bgenerally%20fewer%20than%204%20HCP's%5D)pp4h]133|200[/hv]

 

Match Points (on-line - of course, unknown opponents)

West opens a weak NT and partner doubles for penalties - which for us will usually show 16 HCPs or 15 and a good lead.

 

You don't have much defensive strength and take out partner's double to 2 (do you prefer 3? or 2NT, showing a two-suited hand? or pass?).

 

You have already decided that you will be happy to bid 2 if East competes with 2. But East surprises you by jumping to 4. do you bid 4?

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Vulnerable against not, no thank you. East should be quite strong on this sequence - with a shapely but weak hand you pre-empt immediately after a penalty double, and they had 2H and 3H available as well (or even pass) on the last round. Opposite a normal 16-count in north 4S has no play, and you're likely trading a plus for a minus score.
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Bid 2 (it's not two-suited in my opinion) in response to partner's X, pass opponent's 4 bid. I wouldn't even contemplate 4 even non-vulnerable, let alone vulnerable. If they go down in 4 it should be a reasonable, even good MP score. Why make a (bad) guess and give yourselves a bottom score? It looks like the opponents have the majority of the HCPs, even though you have good shape. For all you know, East's 4 is a guess, too, and it could turn out badly.
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Once in a blue moon 4 will work, partner will have AKQxx,xx, Ax, Kxx or similar, but most of the time you're just digging a BIG hole at this vul, 2 is normal, but it's not unreasonable particularly against a weak NT where partner might have a 2N opener more often than against a strong one to agree that 3 shows a decent 6 card suit without much strength.
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At the table, I would be asking about their methods over the double. I’d guess that the pass by responder created a force on opener, but at the table I’d refuse to guess: I’d ask.

 

Once I knew what their agreements were, I’d have greater confidence than I presently have about what’s going on.

 

Having said that, in the real world I’d pass 4H. Players who bid 4S here will get a great result some of the time. Reminds me of a saying popular when, many years ago, I rode motorcycles: there are old motorcyclists, there are bold motorcyclists, but there are no old bold motorcyclists.

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At the table, I would be asking about their methods over the double.

 

I asked and was told "to play".

 

What hand do you picture for East? Presumably about a nine-count, with long hearts and a source of tricks for his partner in a 1NT contract, so most of the nine points are in hearts.

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What hand do you picture for East? Presumably about a nine-count, with long hearts and a source of tricks for his partner in a 1NT contract, so most of the nine points are in hearts.

 

Yup, probably one outside slow stop Qxx, or Jxxx, but if he thought he could make 4 he'd have bid it since it beats 1Nx+2 so the 2-P-P has improved his hand somehow.

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I asked and was told "to play".

 

What hand do you picture for East? Presumably about a nine-count, with long hearts and a source of tricks for his partner in a 1NT contract, so most of the nine points are in hearts.

You misunderstand me or I misunderstand you😊 Obviously 4H is to play. But what, if anything, his pass of the double mean? It seems to me improbable that east has a hand where he expects to make 4H and yet hopes to play in 1N doubled.

 

Even if 1N makes, it scores less than does 4H.

 

Many pairs, playing a weak notrump, use the pass to force a redouble, catering to a variety of hands. That’s what I want to know,

 

If, from east’s perspective, the contract could have been 1N doubled, that implies a somewhat different hand than if east knew that he was getting a chance to bid 4H after passing.

 

Anyway, this is a minor issue, since I would not bid anyway. However, if pass forced opener to bid, I would not have bid 2D. I would have passed to see what happened. I may only hav3 3 hcp, but I have a far better hand than that number implies.

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You misunderstand me or I misunderstand you😊 Obviously 4H is to play. But what, if anything, his pass of the double mean? It seems to me improbable that east has a hand where he expects to make 4H and yet hopes to play in 1N doubled.

 

Just to be clear, the pass of 1NT doubled was described as "to play". Yes I am aware that there is an inconsistency between wanting to play 1NT doubled (not game) and wanting to play in a 4H game. It is possible that a redouble would be artificial, so the choice was to "take the money" in 1NT doubled or bid a more speculative 4H (and 4H might have become less speculative in the context of my 2D bid).

 

My guess was a heart suit that he was hoping would run and nothing outside.

 

I understand your opinion that you would not be bidding over 4H, whatever the explanation. :)

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  • 2 weeks later...
Congratulations on your 94.9% board and the 0.14 Masterpoints it brought. It is nonetheless a terrible call in my opinion. Nice to see David Stevenson on the traveller - have not seen him in forever and feared he might be unwell. His partner played in a mundane 4 for 82.65%.
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Congratulations on your 94.9% board and the 0.14 Masterpoints it brought. It is nonetheless a terrible call in my opinion. Nice to see David Stevenson on the traveller - have not seen him in forever and feared he might be unwell. His partner played in a mundane 4 for 82.65%.

 

I don't know David personally, but I have noticed him online a few times recently - he seems to be part of a team in the EBU's online teams league.

 

Yes I agree that sadly my call was a lucky bid. I had largely stopped playing on line, mainly because I fall into bad habits such as playing too quickly. It was an impetuous bid, which happened to work ... and that started me wondering ...

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