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Can't go far wrong


pescetom

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MP

[hv=pc=n&w=sat4hq4dkjcakj642&e=sj76ha72daq76cq53&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=p?]266|200[/hv]

 

Seeing both hands it appears that EW can't go far wrong however they bid, yet in last night's MP tournament only 41% of tables actually bid a slam here (16% bid 6, 25% bid 6NT, 52% bid 3NT).

What would your usual methods have led to, assuming an uncontested auction?

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It's always easy when you can see the two hands. The key is west's rebid: playing our (weak NT) system after the bidding starts 1-1, I will have a choice between 3, 1NT (15-18) and 2NT (19-20). The playing strength in the club suit would persuade me to choose to rebid 2NT and I would hope that this would persuade East to push on to slam.
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For us:

 

1(4+)-3N (opposite a club, this is precisely 3343 13-15)

 

now there are lots of ways of continuing,a pretty likely one being:

 

4(keycard)-5(2+Q)

5(K)-5N(something I can't show another way so Q with no major K)

6N (can count 12 and 13 can't be better than a finesse)

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MP

[hv=pc=n&w=sat4hq4dkjcakj642&e=sj76ha72daq76cq53&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=p?]266|200[/hv]

 

Seeing both hands it appears that EW can't go far wrong however they bid, yet in last night's MP tournament only 41% of tables actually bid a slam here (16% bid 6, 25% bid 6NT, 52% bid 3NT).

What would your usual methods have led to, assuming an uncontested auction?

 

And if the Q were the Q how would one bid it?

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For us it would go much like Cyberyeti, 1-2(semi-artificial) or 1-3NT, after either of which 4 is RKCB().

If responder did bid a natural 1 then we would probably proceed 2NT 4NT 6NT which may be old fashioned but still has sense I think.

I wouldn't be keen to reverse into 2 on three cards, but the hand can take it and that should work out well too.

 

After a 1 response I saw one West rebid a natural 3, which I don't much like here but surely deserved more than the 3NT response it received.

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And if the Q were the Q how would one bid it?

 

Meaning that East holds QJ76 A72 A76 Q53 ?

I don't see that as a real problem in bidding terms, assuming East will respond 1.

A rebid of 3 looks better now, or one could still risk 2NT or even 2 if that is known style.

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Playing Forum Precision, we might bid

1-2NT (13-15)

6NT

 

or maybe

1-2NT (13-15)

4-4(control)

4-4NT (should be to play but conveniently is is RKC for clubs)

5(0/3)-5NT(all)

6NT(minimum)

 

But this is a bit pointless as we probably can't stop below slam anyway even if we miss two keycards, so the first auction is better.

 

However, Walter Walrus wouldn't bid it with a combined 31 points, and I could see myself ending in 3NT, after for example (standard bidding)

1-1

2NT-3NT

 

In Benji Acol, as I played with pick-upps in Lancaster, it might go

2NT-6NT

 

I am learning Polish Club at the moment so I am curious if someone can help me out:

1-1

2- 2NT ?

We obviously don't play full system on after 2 as responder can't have a game force with length in a major, so maybe 2NT shows this.

Opener could maybe bid 6NT now, but responder is unlimited so it's a bit crude. Maybe just 3 and then some control bids?

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I am learning Polish Club at the moment so I am curious if someone can help me out:

1-1

2- 2NT ?

We obviously don't play full system on after 2 as responder can't have a game force with length in a major, so maybe 2NT shows this.

Opener could maybe bid 6NT now, but responder is unlimited so it's a bit crude. Maybe just 3 and then some control bids?

I played

1C-2S = balanced invite or balanced rightsiding.

1C-2NT = 13+ balanced, GF.

 

1C-1D

2C-2NT

 

sounds more like

Axx

Qxx

Jxxx

xxx

(1C-1D was either 0-7 or 8-11 unbalanced 1 or 2 minors.)

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[hv=pc=n&w=sat4hq4dkjcakj642&e=sj76ha72daq76cq53&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=P1C(!C or BAL)P2C(ART 12+ HCP)P2D(Sound opener G/F)P3N(MIN BAL)P6N(Punt)]266|200|

pescetom "MP. Seeing both hands it appears that EW can't go far wrong however they bid, yet in last night's MP tournament only 41% of tables actually bid a slam here (16% bid 6, 25% bid 6NT, 52% bid 3NT). What would your usual methods have led to, assuming an uncontested auction?

+++++++++++++++++++++++++++

 

Perhaps, on a good day :) [/hv]

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Probably 6. Depends which one of us is West, my partner might find 6NT. Not sure that he would decide it's better though... I wouldn't think of it probably.

 

1 = 15+ (in 1st and 2nd seat)

1 = Game-Forcing

2 = 4+

2NT = 3-, no 5-card suit, Stronger than 3NT.

3 = 6+, no 2nd suit.

3 = Ace of diamonds.

3 = Ace of spades.

4 = Ace of hearts.

5 = King of diamonds.

6 = To Play.

 

6NT? Kind of hard for West to really see it though.

 

3 should agree clubs, in my mind, since we can never have diamond fit as West has no 2nd suit, and East has no 5-card suit. Possibly a slam try in No-Trump though.

5 should 100% show both AK, given the lack of a 4NT bid for 1430.

After 3, I might just bid 1430, but, I think this might throw away any chances at grand. I really can't ever know when it's on in a 1430 auction. Partner is flat though, seems unlikely. So, in keeping this in mind, I might also just pragmatically bid 6 directly over 3.

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Transfer Walsh

 

1C-1S (5+ pts no major)

3C-4C

4D-4H (cues)

4S-4N (cue, 1430)

5D-??

 

I'm not sure if East picks 6N as it's pairs, or 6C to be safe - knowing of 6C, 3D and 2 major aces, you may need to build a trick in a major after discarding the other major on the diamonds. For sure opps are leading a major so I think 6C is more prudent. The DJ is a huge card but neither player knows it.

 

If playing a style where 5N followup to RKC can't be raised to 7, then that works well (on another hand) as it reveals to East if there is a 12th quick trick.

 

ahydra

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I doubt I would find it with any of my regular partners. The only way I can see playing some variety of Acol is as follows:

 

1 - 1

2NT* - 4NT**

6NT

 

*18-19 HCP

** Quantitative

 

Far more likely, it would go:

 

1 - 1

3 - 3NT

 

or

 

1 - 1

2NT - 3NT

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