Forcing pass after 3rd hand opening

[antonylee]

[hv=d=s&v=0&b=11&a=pp1h1s2s4s]133|100[/hv]

In the absence of the first two passes, pass over 4♥ would be forcing (I think? -- see e.g. Kit's rules at https://bridgewinners.com/article/view/good-hands-for-a-lecture-on-forcing-pass/ : "3) We have shown an invitational or better raise and have not had a chance to clarify").

Does the initial pass (meaning that opener is extremely unlikely to hold a GF raise, although a shapely ~10 count is not excluded) change anything?

 

edit: fixed link.

[Tramticket]

South will stretch to bid 2♠ in this auction, safe in the knowledge that the hand has been limited by the initial pass.

 

We haven't specifically discussed this, but if I were north I would not assume that my pass should be forcing.

[cherdano]

There are a lot of difficult trade offs to make when deciding forcing pass agreements. This situation is not one of them. Too often opener knows they are outgunned and will want to take his small chances of beating 4S. Undoubled. Responder is limited not only by having passed but also by not having made a more distributional raise (2N, fit jump, raise to the 4-level).

 

Maybe there is a case for forcing pass in a universe where an opening bid promises 12 hcp in first seat. And in third seat. With two quick tricks.

[nige1]

[hv=d=w&v=0&&a=pp1h1s2s4s]133|100|

AntonyLee "In the absence of the first two passes, pass over 4♥ would be forcing (I think? -- see e.g. Kit's rules at https://bridgewinner...n-forcing-pass/ : "3) We have shown an invitational or better raise and have not had a chance to clarify").

Does the initial pass (meaning that opener is extremely unlikely to hold a GF raise, although a shapely ~10 count is not excluded) change anything?"[/hv][hv=d=w&v=e&b=16&a=pp1hdr4s]133|100|

IMO, Opposite a normal 3rd-in-hand 1-level opening bid, a passed hand can't set up a forcing-pass context, except, perhaps, with a redouble, as in the example on the left[/hv]