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Rebidding After Partner's Redouble


  

21 members have voted

  1. 1. Best Bid at IMPs

    • Two Spades
      14
    • Three Spades
      0
    • Four Spades
      0
    • Other
      7


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Small IMPs game (two tables) Vulnerable vs. Non-vulnerable. What do you feel is best here? Redouble shows 10+, usually tolerance for the other three suits, and less than 3s as we play it.

 

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj864h74d3ckq87&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1sdr2d]133|200[/hv]

 

And, as always, thank you for your replies.

 

Edit: My sincere apologies. I should have indicated we are playing 4M Acol with a weak NT (12-14)

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Obligatory 2 or 3, depends on the exact strictures for your redouble, but yes you must bid.

 

Bonus question - what is 2N a) if you play weak NT b) if you play strong NT

 

I would think surely this should be Good-Bad 2NT, for those who play it under *any* circumstances. With any kind of balanced hand, I'd be giving pard a chance to hit it.

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I would think surely this should be Good-Bad 2NT, for those who play it under *any* circumstances. With any kind of balanced hand, I'd be giving pard a chance to hit it.

If 2NT is good/bad, presumably showing a weak hand with 5-5 in the black suits, what would 3 be (normally that hand) or pass then pulling double to 3 (strong version of that hand) be?

 

I would just say 2N doesn't exist.

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2 can be right but hand is not minimum with 6421 and high card in long suits. I play pass forcing and then 3 as invite. You have 2 more cards than 4M. partner has 10+ but can have more. 2 can be passed with xx Qxxx Axx Axxx

 

It is "minimum for defensive purposes" ie min if partner doubles for penalties, but not for offensive purposes.

 

Although 4M is being played, you either have 5 spades or 15 points in practice so there is little difference to a 5M system;.

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Small IMPs game (two tables) Vulnerable vs. Non-vulnerable. What do you feel is best here? Redouble shows 10+, usually tolerance for the other three suits, and less than 3s as we play it.

 

[hv=pc=n&s=skqj864h74d3ckq87&d=s&v=n&b=15&a=1sdr2d]133|200[/hv]

 

And, as always, thank you for your replies.

 

Edit: My sincere apologies. I should have indicated we are playing 4M Acol with a weak NT (12-14)

 

I would bid 3. Partner's redouble had to mean something and could be indirectly showing a club suit

so it's vital to show your second suit now while you still can

If partner has something like A3 AQ102 109 AJ1094

then a game or even a slam in clubs is eminently biddable.

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My partner would have bid 2C with that hand, not redouble.

Bidding 2 doesn't show the full value of that hand imho

The redouble is stronger It shows at least an opening bid so South

can tell the partnership has the balance of points.

 

 

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Sir,with the given explanations the redouble is gonna make one bid.As played in Spade with only 5 losers my hand is good enough for 3 spades at least.I shall make a waiting PASS right now as that does not NECESSARILY indicate a good defensive hand.Partner has promised 10+ and that + is important.WHY can't he have a hand say xx,Axx,Axxx,Axxx(He is not a passed hand,)

, I,personally,think that one does redouble with such a hand.A bid of 2S or 3C may not help us to bid a confident 5S in competition if we decide that a penalty would not be enough.

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Bidding 2 doesn't show the full value of that hand imho

The redouble is stronger It shows at least an opening bid so South

can tell the partnership has the balance of points.

Yes I wasn't thinking in Acol terms, sorry. 2C without the interference of double would be a game force in most other systems.

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Two spades seems pretty obvious, at least in standard (non-ACOL) bidding.

 

When partner XXs after 1major (X), then unless you play XX as conventional (I do -- most experts in the US do), partner generally has one of two sorts of hands:

 

1. A hand short in your suit with 10+ HCP that either wants to play NT or penalize the opponents

 

2. The three-card limit raise in your suit, if you don't have another way to show this hand

 

Opener should always assume Hand Type 1; if you also allow #2, responder will clear it up later. When advancer bids a suit, opener will generally either pass, to see what responder is going to do, or else X himself with 3+ cards in the bid suit and some defense.

 

The one time opener will bid is when opener could not stand to leave in a penalty X. This is one of those times. If partner Xs 2D for penalty, you aren't going to leave it with a stiff diamonds, 6/4 in the blacks, and zero defensive tricks. So you bid 2S now to tell partner you have at least 6 good spades, short diamonds, and not a great hand (partner is allowed to pass 2S).

 

Bidding 3C is not good at all. What if partner has:

 

x AJxxx KQxx Jxx

 

This is certainly a very possible hand (no, you don't bid 2H with this; in standard bidding, that would show a weaker hand). If you bid 3C, you are going to go minus -- maybe X'd for a phone number. Better to get out quickly.

 

If partner has a hand worth forcing to game, of course, he will bid again.

 

Cheers,

Mike

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2S terrible. 4S makes it hard for pard to bid slam with right cards... 3S about right - with right cards we might hear 4c, we bid 4D - etc... partner can have x AKxx, Qxx, Atxx also - make 6c dece

 

I only see 12 cards in that example hand. It's a common error rolleyes.gif

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Reading all the comments, no one recognizes the XX. What should your pd try to tell you ? Obvious a remarkable hand and asking what you can support. Pd already knows you have at least 5 spades so, tell him your best second card and that is : . The KQxx is in combination with the single and doubleton adds strenght to the hand.

So, 3 should be the answer.

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Reading all the comments, no one recognizes the XX. What should your pd try to tell you ? Obvious a remarkable hand and asking what you can support.

That is not the standard meaning of redouble in the slightest. Redouble highly suggests penalising the opponents, and as miamijd wrote above, telling partner they are wrong by bidding immediately has a very specific meaning.

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