msjennifer Posted September 22, 2019 Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 Suppose north's hand is stronger - but still diamonds. If the bidding went 1N, 2N (transfer to d), 3c (opener has a minimum), Now what - If north bids 3d I assume that opener will pass?What could north bid to say - even with your minimum, we should be at least in game and likely in slam? ThanksSir,Any bid other than 3D,(IN THE PRESENT CASE 3NT),is at least a game force.(OVER 3C SHOWING A MINIMUM). YES SIR, if North bids just 3D opener passes.I n the present deal the bidding would be 1NT-2NT-3D-3H-3S-3NT(denying any Ace outside but guaranteeing clubK or singleton)-6D.( club king /singleton is known already). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pescetom Posted September 22, 2019 Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 So, let's assume that we did play 4way transfers. In this case, I would have said 2N - transfer to diamonds. If opener answered 3c, then let's assume that he has a minimum hand and then I should say 3D. If he says 3D, then let's assume he has a maximum hand. So - now what? I still don't know if he has controls in spades and that is really critical to making slam of any stripe. As previously discussed I think this should go 1NT 2NT 3♦ 4♦. South knowing that you have no singletons or voids is now likely to ask keycards rather than control bid, and over the reply of 2+Q he bids 6♦. It's far from certain, but better than a pure guess or risking 6NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
danhputnam Posted September 22, 2019 Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 Changing agreements is good, but when you were dealt this hand you had to bid within the structure you had. You didn't have a way to show this hand. So now you must guess. The key here is that you know more about partner's hand than you can show about yours, and you have limited ways to learn anything except how many aces he has or whether he has an extra J. I would probably bid 4C and bid 6NT if he has two. I wouldn't strongly consider a diamond contract. And I wouldn't ask partner to decide. Two final things to consider. 1NT-4NT would deny interest in the majors, and luckily you do have an honor in each. If partner is savvy enough to know you have a minor suit oriented hand, 4NT might work out. The other consideration is the field. If it is a strong aggressive field, you're more likely to be punished by bidding short. If it's a weak field, 3NT or 4NT is probably safe. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maartenxq Posted September 22, 2019 Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 I suppose a direct 3 ♦means good ♦and slam interest. P cues, supports or signs off in 3 nt. Another approach would be to start with 2 ♣and ask for minors afterwards if that method is available. Maarten Baltussen Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
phoenixmj Posted September 22, 2019 Author Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 [hv=pc=n&s=sa84hkqj6da86cqj7&w=sj3ht943d74ca9632&n=sq9ha7dkqt532ckt8&e=skt7652h852dj9c54]399|300[/hv] These are all 4 hands. If south is playing 6N - then any spade lead from west can set the contract. The JS is best as it will be clear to east that they do not need to play the king unless the queen is played. South has to let west back in with the ace of clubs. The field at our club the day we played was probably average for a club open game. Since it was a common game, I checked out some other club results where I feel the field is very strong - and the results were similar. Across the common game in general, a higher percentage got to slam. Diamond slam bid by 9 percent, NT slam bid by 19 percent, and the remaining bids were game or less. Since south opened 1N, any NT contract will be played by south and it can be beaten. If N were playing the NT contract, then it can be made with any lead. With a low spade lead, south would have no choice but to take the finesse and it works. 6D can be made with any lead by either north or south. Several people at my club hand indicated they had gone so far as asking for aces, but without all of them - the worthless doubleton kept them from bidding 6. Certainly a "bad guess" to go to slam produces a zero on this board, since game is so very makeable. A good guess produced a good result that was outside the norm. At the time of the bidding - of course I had no idea if others would go to slam. There were definitely people playing in the room that I consider to be much more experienced and better players/bidders than I. And, I was painfully aware of the fact that we do not play 4way transfers yet and others did - putting them at an advantage for this hand. So, when strapped, I decided that missing the slam might well be outside the norm. So, it just came down to a guess and I will say, the hand just "felt" like a slam. Of course the keys to making it - were partner's good hearts to use for sluffs. Don't know how to find that out with bidding. The ace of spades was huge. Had it been the ace of clubs - a spade lead might set the contract unless partner had the king of spades. And - the ace of diamonds. But, with a NT open, I convinced myself that the points partner had would do the trick - at least a 50 percent shot. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
msjennifer Posted September 22, 2019 Report Share Posted September 22, 2019 Sir,Any bid other than 3D,(IN THE PRESENT CASE 3NT),is at least a game force.(OVER 3C SHOWING A MINIMUM). YES SIR, if North bids just 3D opener passes.I n the present deal the bidding would be 1NT-2NT-3D-3H-3S-3NT(denying any Ace outside but guaranteeing clubK or singleton)-6D.( club king /singleton is known already).By the by, an invitational NT type hand is shown via 2C eg 1NT-2C-2 ANY-2NT Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Join the conversation
You can post now and register later. If you have an account, sign in now to post with your account.