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nige1

Well, do you, Punk?  

39 members have voted

  1. 1. After Opponents bid 1C - 1H, Do you overcall 1N?

  2. 2. After Opponents bid 1C - 1H - 1S - 1N - 3H - 4H, Do you double?

  3. 3. After the auction above, what do you lead?



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[hv=pc=n&s=sqj6hakt42dkq7cq8&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1cp1hp1sp1np3hp4h?]133|200|

John Matheson includes this hand in an article for the Scottish Bridge News:

2019 Teltscher Scotland v England match.

IMPs -> VPs

-- Would you overcall a natural 1N in this sandwich position 1 - 1?

-- Would you double 4?

-- What would you lead against 4?[/hv]

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Is this from this year's Spring Fours?
No, the 2019 Teltscher Scotland v England match.
IMPs or MPs?West looks to have a singleton diamond, so the KQ are not worth A lot in defence. Doubling will tell the opps where all of the cards are. But it still feels like this going off.
IMPs --> VPs.

Thank you both. I've updated the OP :)

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No, I don't bid 1NT. Where in the world are my tricks opposite not much of anything from partner? I will get killed.

 

No, I don't double. Why double? I have two defensive tricks and probably a third in hearts. That's it. West obviously has a singleton diamond; he is no double 4315 with strong clubs that will run with my Qx in the slot. At most I'm beating it one, and in IMPs you don't risk giving away a normally unmakeable doubled game for an extra 100 points.

 

I lead a heart honor to cut down on dummy's ruffing power.

 

Cheers,

Mike

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NO.I shall keep quiet over 1H. I shall double 4H and lead the HK. Cards can be arranged so that ALL I get is thee heart tricks.I never ever think "what if the cards are distributed this and that." That sure is a pessimistic attitude.
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[hv=pc=n&s=sakj3haq8dk2c9632&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1h(NAT 5+ cards) p1s(NAT 4+ !S 0-9 HCP)?]133|200|

I'll wait a couple of days, in case there are any more comments, before posting the full deal.

In the mean time, please can you explain why the problem on the left is so different?

In a recent thread, RR9000 posted this Interesting sandwich bidding problem

 

 

+++++++++++++++++++

My 2d worth:: over 1 - 1, I Pass

 

Then, however, commentators recommended a natural 1N overcall.[/hv]

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In the first example, there is a dubious club stopper, so do something else.

 

In the second case, both suits are well stopped (although hearts is in the wrong place) with 17 high. It still seems like the opponents have not yet found a fit and you may know more what to do after the next bid.

This may also depend upon the strength of the opponents, their system, and your partnership system.

 

1 NT would have the information across at the 1 level- but is the hand really best with such poor minor suits?/

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No, not bidding 1N, when partner is close to dead broke. No, not doubling when both my pointed suits are in front of West, as is my Club Queen. No, not giving away the Spade or Diamond positions by leading one of those honors, and not putting off the lead problem by leading a top Heart to "get a look at dummy". No, not wasting the Club Queen into the Club bidder; even though they may only have 3 cards, partner is unlikely to have the Club K or A. And, no, not leading a Diamond honor, when West is quite possibly quite short in Diamonds. So, in a rare departure from a most-often-best passive lead, I would choose the Club 8, giving West the option to play a high Club, thinking my partner may have the Queen, and giving me a possibility of getting a third Heart trick with a Club ruff. Then, I sit back, watch partner's signals, and play carefully, hoping for the best. In this case, an active lead is reasonable, since at IMPs, my team is willing to take a chance, possibly giving up an overtrick, if it gives us an opportunity to set their game contract. That's my $0.02.
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i dont see any reason to bid over 1H when i have the suit .. i know some who will think about 2H ...

as for the 4H contract , i admit i just cant believe that there is that much not doubling this...i know if its not a spectacular hand it will not be posted as a problem here but i have to answer honestly . opps are playing with a 8 card fit (at best)with 23 HP (at best)and trump are 5-0 ... come on.. well of course if the question is asked its because its a make but i don't even want to think about it .. and after all its just 170 more and 4 imps if made? im pretty sure there is some few scenario that this is not ending with only 1 down ...

bridge is becoming so much more aggressive and so harder , if ur not going to "punish" the aggressive player bidding game with 22 23 HP (i mean with modern bridge im not even 100% sure partner is blank here...) when things looks going wrong for them well they will just surely continue to put pressure on u .

i will lead Ace of H and depending on dummy if it looks problematic i will try to play for 10 of S in partner hand for the one down

regards

syl

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No convenient bid so "pass" on the first round. "Double" 4 contract because it would stupid not to with that holding, as the play by declarer given his own poor holding in the trump suit, and your own honour cards in the other suits already indicates a crossruff is the only way they are going to make this contract.

 

They may make 4 but on the balance of probability it's more likely to go down.

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In the mean time, please can you explain why the problem on the left is so different?

 

Nigel makes a fair point of course. I don't think that a 1NT overcall is silly - it does have the merit of telling partner that we likely have the best hand at the table and involves him in the decisions.

 

But the hand is not nearly as strong as it was when you picked it up. The club queen is likely to be worthless - since partner seems to have very little, it isn't helping to build anything in partner's hand (although JXX or 10XXX in partner's hand might provide a stop. Similarly the 5th heart is unlikely to be useful (but a heart lead...).

 

On balance I choose to pass.

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For the original hand, I'm passing over 1 . Neither opponent hand is limited ane they've bid my best suit.

 

I'm doubling 4 . They are unlikely to have a better spot to play in. If they did have an alternative, doubling would be wrong as it would allow them to escape from a bad spot. Also, at IMPs, the amount you might lose is a lot less than at match points if it makes. It doesn't appear 4 x can do better than just make. So, you're risking at most giving them an extra +170, which is 5 IMPs. At MPs, doubling a making game contract is a zero.

 

I'm leading A to see dummy. If dummy has xxx, then I'm continuing with a low . That will possibly enable dummy to ruff a , but keeps a tenace over declarer. If dummy instead has Hxx, then I'll continue with K and a low ensuring at least 3 tricks but eliminating any ruffs.

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[hv=pc=n&s=SQJ6HAKT42DKQ7CQ8&w=SAK43HQ83D9CAKJT2&e=S85HJ9765DAJ53C74&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1CP1HP1SP1NP3HP4HXPPP&p=DK]400|400|

Here is the full deal from the 2019 Teltscher Scotland v England match

reported by John Matheson,

-- South passed 1

-- South doubled 4

.

which went 2 down In practice

but South later said his double was an error.

-- South must lead a top

to ensure the defeat of 4.

In practice, South led [DI}K,

On that lead, how can East succeed?[/hv]

Edited by nige1
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[hv=pc=n&s=sakj3haq8dk2c9632&d=w&v=n&b=12&a=1h(NAT 5+ cards) p1s(NAT 4+ !S 0-9 HCP)?]133|200|

I'll wait a couple of days, in case there are any more comments, before posting the full deal.

In the mean time, please can you explain why the problem on the left is so different?

In a recent thread, RR9000 posted this Interesting sandwich bidding problem

 

 

+++++++++++++++++++

My 2d worth:: over 1 - 1, I Pass

 

Then, however, commentators recommended a natural 1N overcall.[/hv]

I would have thought/hoped that the difference between the two hands was obvious. However, apparently it is not. On the OP hand, we have no club stopper, and the 5th heart is not especially valuable, even if we can establish it, and outside of the hearts, our values are very soft. Hand evaluation is far more than counting high cards.

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[hv=pc=n&s=SQT6HAKT42DKQ7CQ8&w=SAK43HQ83D9CAKJT2&e=S85HJ9765DAJ53C74&d=w&v=b&b=4&a=1CP1HP1SP1NP3HP4HXPPP&p=DK]400|400|

Here is the full deal from the 2019 Teltscher Scotland v England match

reported by John Matheson,

-- South passed 1

-- South doubled 4

.

which went 2 down In practice

but South later said his double was an error.

-- South must lead a top

to ensure the defeat of 4.

In practice, South led [DI}K,

On that lead, how can East succeed?[/hv]

Why did you change the hand?

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Why did you change the hand?

Corrected :) (When copying the full deal from John Matheson;s draft, I swapped the ten and knave of spades by mistake. It probably wouldn't affect the play)

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The question is not "Can you beat 4h?", you know you can beat it. The real question is, "Can they make 5c if I tell them where everything is?". Pass 4h.

 

Opener doesn't know if there's a fit or not, so bidding 5 is a shot. Responder could just as easily have xxx J9xxx AJxx x and 5 x is no bargain. Of course, with opener showing shortness and responder likely short in , opening leader might also just find a opening lead.

 

5 x might be a lucky make, but it might also be going down several tricks more than 4 x. 5 requires making one trick more than 4 . Had responder shown a fit, then doubling 4 might encourage bidding to a 5 contract. But without any apparent club fit, bidding 5 can turn a bad IMP board into an IMP disaster.

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