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What to bid here ?


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Matchpoints, nobody vulnerable

 

You are North, holding:

AKQ62-97-K86-JT5

 

South (pard) deals and opens 1H, and bidding uncontested, goes:

 

1H-1S

2D-3C

3D-?

 

What do you bid here ?

 

The response should comply with the following agreements with partner:

we play 5 card majors with 2D opening = Multi, and 2H and 2S are natural, strong semiforcing openings (1R force) including about 18-21 single suiters or 2 suiters.

 

That means that pard has shown a weak 55 (a good 55 would have jumped to 3D, and a really strong 55 would have opened a semiforcing 2H).

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3. Let's see if partner is 2-5-5-1 or 1-5-5-2. He may even choose to raise to 4 with the latter holding. If he rebids 4, I will raise and hope he has

 

x

AKxxx

AQxxx

xx

 

Even with AJ10xx 5 has play. Same applies if he has AQxxx in hearts. I don't want to mastermind and pass 4 although that could be the last winning spot.

 

Roland

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4D.

 

Starting a slam investigation, he

may have a singleton / void in

Clubs afterall.

 

It's MP, we know that 3NT does not

have chances, and we have a fit in

a minor, lets investigate the 6 level.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

 

PS: Because several guys, did suggest

3S, you forgot to tell us, what a direct

2S bid and what a 3S bid instead of the

3C bid would have been?

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PS: Because several guys, did suggest

3S, you forgot to tell us, what a direct

2S bid and what a 3S bid instead of the

3C bid would have been?

After 1H:1S:2D:?

 

3S = invitational, NF

2S = weak NF, less than invitational

 

The forcing single suiter woul be 1H:2S.

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PS: Because several guys, did suggest

3S, you forgot to tell us, what a direct

2S bid and what a 3S bid instead of the

3C bid would have been?

After 1H:1S:2D:?

 

3S = invitational, NF

2S = weak NF, less than invitational

 

The forcing single suiter woul be 1H:2S.

Hi

 

from this follows, that 3S in the seq.

 

1H-1S

2D-3C

3D-3S

 

showes either

1) a strong 6 card suit, reponder holding

a 6-4 shape

or

2) a ragged 6 card suit

 

I will go with 1), because we are talking about spades,

and the seq.

 

1H - 2S

 

is the star among the seq. involving strong jumb shifts,

i.e. it should be used, when there is a slight excuse,

and since I voted for 4D ... ;)

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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4, my partners would raise my 3 to 4 with singleton.

3H

 

 

Exactly

 

Willing to play in 5-1 fit? Perhaps that is winning bid! MP is a goofy game.

 

P has no great reason to rebid 4D with AQxxx and they have denied strong or "good" 2 suiter.

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4, my partners would raise my 3 to 4 with singleton.

4 seems obvious to me. If partner's hand were 2-5-5-1, he could bid 4 over 4.

Why is 4s in a 5-2 ok but 5d so much better than 4h in 5-2 at MP? P may have decent hearts or chose to bid 3s over 3h or rebid 4d.

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4, my partners would raise my 3 to 4 with singleton.

4 seems obvious to me. If partner's hand were 2-5-5-1, he could bid 4 over 4.

Why is 4s in a 5-2 ok but 5d so much better than 4h in 5-2 at MP? P may have decent hearts or chose to bid 3s over 3h or rebid 4d.

Playing in 4S, you can ruff club in the short trump hand. But playing in 4H, you have to ruff in the long trump hand. That might create a problem.

 

In the sequence, 1S is marked 5 spades. So I dont think bidding rebidding 3S is a good choice. As fluffy said, pd should raise to 4S with singleton SJ. But you probably dont want it.

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That is why we give partner a choice over 3h. P can rebid 4h or 3s or 4d. Sure hand may play better in 4s or 5d than 4h but lets get partner involved. They sometimes make correct decision on imperfect information. Rebidding 3s or 4d takes 4h option in 5-2 out of picture.
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In the sequence, 1S is marked 5 spades. So I dont think bidding rebidding 3S is a good choice.

 

No, 3C = 4th suit forcing does not necessarily promise 5+ spades.

Sure, many times it will, but it might come as well from a GF balanced hand with only 4 spades, without clubs stopper.

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