briannz556 Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 Hi[hv=pc=n&s=sak3hakqj4dt52ca2&n=s2ht9dkj8ckqjt963]133|200[/hv] As South, I opened 1♥ as I had 5 losers. Bidding began: 1♥ (1♠) 2♣ 2♠ ... and I didn’t know how to get to a slam. What is a good way to bid one of the 3 slams available - ideally with N as declarer? My thoughts are that N is the one in the best position to be Captain of this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 I would start by making an accurate description of my hand and opening 2NT (Or even 2!C-2x-2NT) 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheoKole Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 Hi1 [hv=pc=n&s=sak3hakqj4dt52ca2&n=s2ht9dkj8ckqjt963]133|200[/hv] As South, I opened 1♥ as I had 5 losers. Bidding began: 1♥ (1♠) 2♣ 2♠ ... and I didn’t know how to get to a slam. What is a good way to bid one of the 3 slams available - ideally with N as declarer? My thoughts are that N is the one in the best position to be Captain of this hand. If you choose to start 1 ♥ instead of 2 NT then after 1 ♥ - (1 ♠) - 2 ♣ (2 ♠) one continuation is... 3 NT - (Pass if they are smart) - 4 ♣ (interested in ♣ slam, otherwise why go past 3NT) - (Pass)4 ♥ (cue bid and indirectly warning about ♦ since ♦ were not cue bid) - 4NT (key card ask) (4 ♠ can also be used as keycard ask by agreement in this sequence) - 5 ♣ (0 or 3 keycards) 6 ♣ (to protect the King of ♦) If south opens 2NT then 3 ♣ (usually stayman)3 ♥ (♥ suit) - 4 ♣ (cancels stayman, interested in ♣ slam otherwise why go past 3NT)4 ♥ (cue bid for ♣ hand good for slam indirectly warning about ♦since cue-bid was bypassed) - 4NT (keycard for ♣) (4 ♠ can also be used as keycard ask by agreement in this sequence)5 ♣ (0 or 3 key cards) - 6 ♣ (to protect King of ♦) Good luck Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TylerE Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 3 ♥ (♥ suit) - 4 ♣ (cancels stayman, interested in ♣ slam otherwise why go past 3NT) That is truly a bizarre treatment. The closest thing to standard here is that 2NT-3♠ is a relay to 3NT with some sort of minor-suited slam hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
TheoKole Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 That is truly a bizarre treatment. The closest thing to standard here is that 2NT-3♠ is a relay to 3NT with some sort of minor-suited slam hand. If you play 4 suit transfers sure, some players play 3 ♠ as transfer to both minors; same thing after 1NT - 2♠, if this is the case then stayman and bidding the minor suit is a good way to make a forcing minor suit bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
miamijd Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 As others have mentioned, I think you do best to upgrade this one to 22 and open 2C, planning to rebid 2NT. This is the nicest, balanced 21-count you'll ever get, so to me, this seems clear. Having opened 1H, however, you know you should have a slam when partner bids 2C. 2C should be 10+ HCP, so that means slam should be a good bet. I would just shoot out 6NT with your hand. Doesn't partner have to have something in diamonds to get to his HCP allotment? Another possibility is a 3S call, but I don't see what that gets you, because partner is going to bid 4C 98% of the time. Cheers,Mike Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nekthen Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 Are we playing imp or mp?If imps I will bid 4N rkcb (or 4♣ or 4♦) and settle for 6♣At pairs I might try harder to get partner to bid N first. Bidding 6N and losing the first two ♦ tricks is not going to please pWe can always hope that partner realises from our bidding that the k♦ is a golden card and he will have the smarts to bid 6 N himself Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
maartenxq Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 As far as I can see the trouble begins with the opening. For me this is a 2 NT. Now North should realise that the contract must be in his hand and could/should bid 6 ♣.As it went south has an awkward bid now. Pass should be forcing, 2nt 12-14, 3 nt 18-19. If south bids the latter north could make the same evaluation as before and venture 6 ♣, without thinking of 7. Maarten Baltussen 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hrothgar Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 Good grief!A hand where Gerber is actually useful... 2NT - 4♣5N - 6♣ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
msjennifer Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 SIR,what a hand.! Difficult to reach 6NT from North although W will have the DA if it is played played by S and a D is led.Will require perfect understanding as the opponents have already raised the level by their 2S bid.The experts may please guide .THX. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 The reason for opening NT of any sort is that it is such a descriptive bid that it automatically transfers captaincy. Personally, I would upgrade this hand and bid it like a minimum 2C NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 The reason for opening NT of any sort is that it is such a descriptive bid that it automatically transfers captaincy. Personally, I would upgrade this hand and bid it like a minimum 2C NT. Which on this hand is bad because you wrongside a club contract and will need some fancy footwork not to wrongside other good slams, but it's the approach I'd also take. I would rebid 2N over 2 any, but I think 3♥ is more sensible over 3♣. 2♣-3♣(F4N unless a suit known to be open)-3♥-4♣ and now what ? Not easy, cue bidding is firsts and seconds, 4♦ would ask aces, neither solves your problem. If you ask aces, partner could have nothing in diamonds, if you cue, you don't know if he has A or K so could easily miss a 15 top trick grand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tramticket Posted March 23, 2019 Report Share Posted March 23, 2019 Which on this hand is bad because you wrongside a club contract …. We are lucky to be able to show a balanced 21-22 through our multi 2♦ opening. Partner probably responds 3♣ - to play (opposite a weak-two) - and we are able to right-side the club slam. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jecech Posted March 24, 2019 Report Share Posted March 24, 2019 I suggest you bid 3 ♠ ... Your partner might not understand what that bid mean but he/she will know that it is forcing to game If your partner bid 3 NT - you raise to 6. If your partner bid 4 ♣ , it must be slammy, since 3 ♠ is GF. You cue 4 ♥ and you will reach 6 ♣If your partner bid 5 ♣ he has probably minimum points 8-10 and a long but not solid suit (which you already know since you hold the Ace.) So you raise to 6 ♣And btw next time, your should open 2 NT... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
briannz556 Posted March 24, 2019 Author Report Share Posted March 24, 2019 Thanks for all the responses. Yes, I goofed with the 1H opening. I was playing with a person who I’d just met so had little understanding of conventions we could use. If it was my regular P, it would have been 2N- 3S ( T to N) - 3N - 4C ( single suited slam interest in C ) - 4H - 4S - 5C - 6C. This is something we have in our understanding but never came up in the past. Appreciate your replies. ThanksBrian Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted March 24, 2019 Report Share Posted March 24, 2019 Thanks for all the responses. Yes, I goofed with the 1H opening. I was playing with a person who I’d just met so had little understanding of conventions we could use. If it was my regular P, it would have been 2N- 3S ( T to N) - 3N - 4C ( single suited slam interest in C ) - 4H - 4S - 5C - 6C. This is something we have in our understanding but never came up in the past. Appreciate your replies. ThanksBrian Depends on your NT ranges also, although the point count is 21 I'd bid it as 22 which means a 2♣ opener for us, if 22 is in your 2N then 2N is more reasonable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hamish32 Posted March 24, 2019 Report Share Posted March 24, 2019 We play Mosca a system with strong forcing 1 bids so we would also open 1!H on this hand. If you are playing standard you might not open 2NT if your agreement is that you need a hold in every suit. You should play puppet over 2NT so that you dont lose the 5 card heart suit. So opening 1!H in our methods we follow up 2!S with a power X. You might want to google power X invented by the italians they are great in auctions like this when you have to bid the best slam from the right side. (Yes with a !D hold i would just rebid 6NT but here with no !D hold you are playing partner for A or KQ in !D if you rebid 6NT so im not going there). A power X shows 18+ it saves a lot of room in this auction where 3!S would use a whole level of bidding room. After a power X north has enough to bid 4!C setting the suit for slam investigation. Now opener cues 4!H showing the problem in !D and responder bids 4!S cue. Now we play turbo here so opener bids 5!C showing 3 or 5 key cards and responder can raise to 6NT or 6!C rightsiding the hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jo4bridge Posted March 24, 2019 Report Share Posted March 24, 2019 Is there a rule that you must own an ace in order to bid blackwood? If not, south could open 2cl and north could bid 4nt, ending with a 6nt contract. Then it doesn't matter whether south's 3rd ace is club or diamond. All good.Not many 'cues' in my profile so this would make sense to me playing with regular partner or complete stranger.Jo Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tramticket Posted March 25, 2019 Report Share Posted March 25, 2019 Is there a rule that you must own an ace in order to bid blackwood? If not, south could open 2cl and north could bid 4nt, ending with a 6nt contract. Then it doesn't matter whether south's 3rd ace is club or diamond. All good.Not many 'cues' in my profile so this would make sense to me playing with regular partner or complete stranger.Jo Even if you have agreed that a direct 4NT over 2♣ is Blackwood (this is not automatic), it seems like a really bad bid. You have taken all of the bidding space and taken control, but won't know what to do with the answer. Partner might have:- ♠Q43 ♥AKQJ4 ♦AQ2 ♣A2 - Now 6NT is going off on a spade lead.- ♠A43 ♥AKQJ4 ♦A52 ♣A2 - Do you have enough information to bid the grand slam?- ♠KQJ543 ♥AKQJ4 ♦AQ ♣- - Where are you going now? It is generally good practice to allow the strong hand the space to explore. After a game-forcing 2♣, there is no rush. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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