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[hv=pc=n&s=saqha65dakjt65c42&n=s976hq9dq974c9865&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sppd2hpp3dpp3hdppp]266|200[/hv]

 

 

Partner and I have a misunderstanding on this bidding.

 

Partner believes my 2nd double is for penalty.

I say that since she never bid and we are still in a part score it is asking for her to bid.

If she has tricks for our side on defence and nothing better she could pass the double.

 

Here she should have an easy 4 raise.

 

Would like hearing other opinions on this.

 

Thank you

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If you had just a suit and not much value you could bid 2 initially. Since you didn't, double and bid must show a stronger hand, possibly a "strong" overcall down to a overcall hand with minimum opening values but long . When you double the second time you are confirming a better big hand.

 

Your partner also needs to consider the auction. Opener's partner couldn't find a response so likely has no more value than partner. So that leaves something like 30+ points between your hand and openers. Opener's bids show at least 5-4 in the majors and likely 5-5. Opener's partner PASSED 2 indicating a preference for . Then after you bid 3 , opener's partner competed to 3 confirming at least a 4-4 fit. The 3 bid would not be made on only 3 and 4-5 value. On hands where opener has shown 2 suits with the first one being the longer, if responder shows a fit in the second suit, then dummy will be short in the longer suit and its trump will be available to ruff losers in that suit.

 

With no defense and a fit for partner's suit, 4 should be bid.

 

OTOH, if partner's and were swapped, partner would be looking at 2 likely tricks and the double could be passed

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You asked "What went wrong?". Two things in my opinion:

 

(1) South has over-bid the hand. The double followed by 3 has described south's hand pretty well. The second double (which shows further values in my opinion) is re-showing values he has already shown.

(2) North should bid 4 over 3. Note that this is easy and obvious if South simply passes. It is also correct after the second double - unless the partnership has an explicit agreement that this double is penalty. But in my opinion, the default meaning of the double is to show further values and North should show the four-card support.

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south's 2nd x should be penalty oriented. Axx Ax AJTxxx AK or some such. The first x (followed by 3d) adequately described the south hand and pass over 3h would have been the best course of action allowing partner to evaluate what to do. Having nothing that looked like defense vs 4h I would probably pass out the 3h bid as north though at MP I can certainly see a case for 4d.
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I agree with Tramticket and, hence, with Cherdano. I add, however, that it is common to play that a reopening 3D, jump overcall in passout seat, shows a solid opening hand with 6+ diamonds.

 

It is for this reason that the double and then 3D shows the hand values well: were South to merely have, say, a good 14 with those diamonds, his correct action would have been a balancing 3D.

 

All of this means that South, over 3H, can pass, knowing that he has shown his full offensive power (that spade AQ isn't worth much, assuming that declarer either buys a stiff in dummy, such that one of our cards is ruffed out, or gets an entry and uses it in spades, not trump.

 

Now, this does not give North a free pass, with Qxxx in a suit partner almost surely has at least 6 cards, and her spade holding is the worst imaginable.

 

Whether, absent a double of 3H, North should compete to 4D is less easy to say. Most solid opponents would already be in game if game was reasonable, but sometimes they will have taken the low road and then be pushed, if only because they think that 4H, if it fails, may be cheaper than defending 4D. Less solid opps are more prone to have missed the game and then be pushed there. If I trust my opps, I will bid 4d, but with a queasy feeling since I don't have much defence....although the heart queen is a likely trick.

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  • 3 weeks later...

[hv=pc=n&s=saqha65dakjt65c42&n=s976hq9dq974c9865&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1sppd2hpp3dpp3hdppp]266|200[/hv]

 

 

Partner and I have a misunderstanding on this bidding.

 

Partner believes my 2nd double is for penalty.

I say that since she never bid and we are still in a part score it is asking for her to bid.

If she has tricks for our side on defence and nothing better she could pass the double.

 

Here she should have an easy 4 raise.

 

Would like hearing other opinions on this.

 

Thank you

 

1st row bidding:

north and east passed, and u have 18 pts, so we should know the points distribution: 18(south) + 8(north and east) + 14(west)

this is tricky, we should never double this kind of distribution, moreover ur opponent have 2 long suits.

 

all u can do is bid ur , 2d, 3d, or gambling to 4d, just by yourself.

pushing no points partner with double is worthless and just create more confusing situation.. just imagine if ur hand have zero points and 2 suits 4 cards, and ur partner double to hope u to bid.. what u should bid?? lol..

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