awm Posted May 8, 2005 Report Share Posted May 8, 2005 How do you take the 3♦ bid in the auction 1♣-1♠-2♣-3♦? I've tried to cover all possibilities, but please let me know if you play something else as well: (1) Natural and weak. Presumably something like 4♠-6♦ playing walsh style.(2) Natural and invitational. Either 4♠-6♦ or 5♠-5♦ (or could be either) based on style.(3) Natural and game forcing. (4) Stopper ask (please bid 3NT with a diamond stopper partner!)(5) Splinter, agreeing clubs. (6) Some kind of forcing club raise (presumably 3♣ is inv) but not necessarily a splinter. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted May 8, 2005 Report Share Posted May 8, 2005 i think i'd play it as natural and game forcing... 4 (or 5) spades and 5+ diamonds... slam is possible if there's a fit... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted May 8, 2005 Report Share Posted May 8, 2005 It can always be what you want, though if you're playing 3rd suit forcing or new minor forcing, then it's probably best used as 55 game forcing. Not playing gadgets it's natural, 54 and game force. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Double ! Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 not just nat. & GF, if that's your treatment, but IMO, the bid implies good quality suits, otherwise why bother with the bid when 2D is forcing? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
bearmum Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 Assuming playing SAYC or 2/1 I would play the 3♦ as GF - showing 5/5 good cards in ♠ and♦, :P Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pclayton Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 All secondary jumps and jump shifts are invitational. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 I voted invitational under the assumption that 2♦ would just be a relay so we need some way of showing diamonds. But 2♦ as New Suit Invitational and 3♦ (therefore) as forcing makes a lot of sense. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted May 9, 2005 Author Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 So here's a follow-up question. Suppose north holds: ♠ AKJxx♥ x♦ Axxxx♣ Jx How would you recommend to get to the best contract playing your favorite system/methods, when south deals and holds: (1) ♠ x♥ Kxx♦ xxx♣ AKQxxx (2) ♠ x♥ Axx♦ Kxx♣ KQTxxx (3) ♠ x♥ Axx♦ Kx♣ KQTxxxx (4) ♠ -♥ xxx♦ KQxx♣ AKxxxx In a standard system, all these hands will open 1♣ and rebid 2♣. Each has 12 hcp and four controls. In fact the first two have the exact same distribution. Yet the best contract would seem to be different in each case. Can you devise a convincing auction to find them? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
EricK Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 I play the jump to 3♦ as a splinter. I use 2♦ as an artificial GF (Bourke Relay) so in each of these hands responder will bid 2♦ and opener will make the most descriptive rebid (2♥, 2NT, 3♣, 3♦), responder will rebid/raise ♦ to show his hand and I will leave you to fill in the rest of these convincing auctions! Eric Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 I tried to resist but I am weak.....most of these posts have me ROFl..... Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 Without other agreements I would consider it a splinter, but the way I play, 2D would be forcing 1R. So, if 2D is forcing (either 1R or GF), it makes sense IMO to use 3D as splinter; if 2D is NF, then it does make sense to use it as natural GF. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 5-5, invitational strength. But this is just a matter of partnership agreement. You could also play it as gameforcing,making the seq. 1C - 1S2C - 2D (*)??? - 3D (*) NMF showing this kind of hand. with kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 So here's a follow-up question. Suppose north holds: ♠ AKJxx♥ x♦ Axxxx♣ Jx How would you recommend to get to the best contract playing your favorite system/methods, when south deals and holds: (1) ♠ x♥ Kxx♦ xxx♣ AKQxxx (2) ♠ x♥ Axx♦ Kxx♣ KQTxxx (3) ♠ x♥ Axx♦ Kx♣ KQTxxxx (4) ♠ -♥ xxx♦ KQxx♣ AKxxxx In a standard system, all these hands will open 1♣ and rebid 2♣. Each has 12 hcp and four controls. In fact the first two have the exact same distribution. Yet the best contract would seem to be different in each case. Can you devise a convincing auction to find them? I play straight NWF. The first question, one needs to answer is,does north want to force to game?For me the answer is yes. The second question, one needs to answer is,is south strong enough, to insist on game, oppositean inviational hand?For me the answer is no. The third question: Which form of scoring,altough this is largely irrelevant for me, but the answer may affect the answers for to the previous questions. So the biddding would start in all cases 1C - 1S2C - 2D (1)3C (2) - 3D (3) (1) NWF(2) minimum, denying 3 card spade support, a 4 card heart suit, a diamond stopper (...) the last thing, because the 6 / 7 card suit makes 2NT not the most desireable spot, except for hand (1), and there you dont have a stopper(3) game force, at least 5-4 Now over 3D South will bid 3NT with hand (1)-(3), and 5D with hand (4) not perfect, but that is the price I pay,for playing such simplistic methods. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 So here's a follow-up question. Suppose north holds: ♠ AKJxx♥ x♦ Axxxx♣ Jx How would you recommend to get to the best contract playing your favorite system/methods, when south deals and holds: I bid 2D (1R force) and later 3H (4sf). Sure, in some cases, when pard shows H stopper with Axx and we stop in 3NT, we might lose a perfect-fit miracle 25 hcp slam in a minor, but in view of the spedaes misfit this should not occur too often. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 How do you take the 3♦ bid in the auction 1♣-1♠-2♣-3♦? Ok, are we all on same page.....the opp are bidding yes....I see no passing on this auction?ROFL If the opp are passing and not bidding on this auction...good grief.....nevermind. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 5-5 inv (5-5 forcing starts with 2D). That being said... 1) 1C-1S-2C-2D-2H-3D-3N-p2) 1C-1S-2C-2D-2N-3D-3H-4C-4D-4H-5C-p3) 1C-1S-2C-2D-2N-3D-3H-4C-4D-4H-6C-p4) 1C-1S-2C-2D-3D-4H(spl)-6D. I think these are good auctions but understand its hard to be objective so maybe theyre somewhat contrived. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Fluffy Posted May 9, 2005 Report Share Posted May 9, 2005 at least 5-5 and game forcing. (1) ......3♦-3NT(2) ......3♦-3♥-3♠-3NT-4♣-5♣(3) same as (2)(4) ......3♦-4♦-4♥-5♣-5♠-6♦ Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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