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Pass-(1 suit)-1NT-(X)


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Playing standard American methods, in the sequence

Pass-(1 suit)-1NT-(X)

 

What is the usual meaning of the double? I'm thinking that the double shows a hand with points but that lacks direction and is also unable to directly support partner's suit (perhaps a 4-4-3-2 shape with the doubleton as support).

 

If opener chooses to bid, are opener's bids natural or do Stayman & Transfer bids still apply? What would be usual meaning of redouble? I guessing the redouble would be asking partner for a suit.

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Peeeeennnnaaaaallllltttttyyyyy.

 

 

If by opener you mean the original passer, then bids are normally whatever your escape from 1NTX would be. Obvs strictly there should probably be some differences since if opener has promised 5 cards you won't want to play in that suit, but I don't know anyone who actually incorporates any differences - it's too much memory strain for a fairly rare consideration.

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Playing standard American methods, in the sequence

Pass-(1 suit)-1NT-(X)

 

What is the usual meaning of the double? I'm thinking that the double shows a hand with points but that lacks direction and is also unable to directly support partner's suit (perhaps a 4-4-3-2 shape with the doubleton as support).

 

If opener chooses to bid, are opener's bids natural or do Stayman & Transfer bids still apply? What would be usual meaning of redouble? I guessing the redouble would be asking partner for a suit.

I remember going to a seminar by Alan Truscott, discussing this very auction. Any call other than Double would show less than 10 hcp. Double would not necessarily be penalty, but strongly suggests that playing 1NT doubled would be a good option.

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With this vulnerability the x shows that defeating 1n will be our most likely best result IF opener has a semi normal looking hand. There is no set minimum or maximum for this bid and it does NOT deny support for openers major. EX: p opens 1S at favorable rho bids 1N and we hold xxxx Axx Axx Axx. We would normally be in at least 4s but we rate to set 1n red more than making 4s. If p feels their hand is too weak or distributional to leave the x in they can pull it.
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With this vulnerability the x shows that defeating 1n will be our most likely best result IF opener has a semi normal looking hand. There is no set minimum or maximum for this bid and it does NOT deny support for openers major. EX: p opens 1S at favorable rho bids 1N and we hold xxxx Axx Axx Axx. We would normally be in at least 4s but we rate to set 1n red more than making 4s. If p feels their hand is too weak or distributional to leave the x in they can pull it.

 

Agree entirely. Probably an extreme example having 4 card support and three aces, but the only thing to add that the doubler now also wants partner to a) pull the double if they feel their hand is too weak or distributional to leave the X in (as you said), or, b) guide the doubler (whether to extract penalties) if the 1NT overcaller and his partner try to escape to a two level contract.

 

Effectively, the doubler is saying that a penalty-based defence will be more profitable than making a part score or even making game.

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Penalty 10+ (or a good 9), and if partner's suit is a major, no 4-card (or better) support.

 

The reason you don't want to X with 4-card support for a major is that the opponents have a fit, and LHO is now going to bid something. If the bidding gets to the three-level before you can make another bid, you're going to have a tough time describing your hand. Better to just bid 2NT (cue-bid, 4-card support, limit raise or better).

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