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Any blame? (1)


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Matchpoints, nobody vul. South led the H3 and that was the end of that. Normal result or should 5C or even 6C be reached?

 

ahydra

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This one is difficult, but having 3N played by the small hand is a bad idea in general.

 

When you say 2 is a relay, what do you mean ? what hands doesn't E have ? What's the minimum/maximum point count he can have.

 

I can't see that E can do anything other than 3N unless he hasn't shown anything like this much, in which case he has to be more positive and hence the question above.

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Matchpoints, nobody vul. South led the H3 and that was the end of that. Normal result or should 5C or even 6C be reached?

 

I don't like West's 3 bid: East is unlikely to have a fit (having already shown 5+ ) and 3NT by East is wrongsided and might even go down with a fragile stop. I would have been delighted to see 3 and would have bid 4 as a forcing raise, enabling us to control-bid to a moysian slam.

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I disagree with the 2C opening - would be OK if the long suit were a major; however, I'm not sure how much a 1C opening helps unless responder makes a false preference bid of 3C over the 2S jump shift.

 

It helps us, but we don't play standard and would play 3N from the other side which is probably good enough.

 

To Pescetom:

 

I would have been delighted to see 3♦ and would have bid 4♦ as a forcing raise, enabling us to control-bid to a moysian slam.

 

A Moysian slam that doesn't make on 2 rounds of hearts unless diamonds are 3-3.

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A Moysian slam that doesn't make on 2 rounds of hearts unless diamonds are 3-3.

A fair number of possible East hands could resist 4 diamonds in North after the heart ruff in West. But yes, 6 is a fragile slam, as would be 6 for that matter. In part that's the price for opening 2 3 rather than 1, there isn't much room to exchange information before deciding.

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I think 3N is suicidal. I would just bid 4C over 3S. I have a club fit, Kx of partner's secondary suit, and all my values concentrated in what I bid.

 

If partner only has 5 clubs on this sequence, that's his problem

 

How do you expect him to bid AJxx, KQ, AJ, AKJxx, he wants to look for the spade fit in case you have KQ10x, xx, Kxxxx, xx.

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Starting with 2NT rather than 3C maybe?

 

Going on 3NT with 10xxx facing partner’s likely singleton is probably exaggerating.

I've noticed from these boards that people in the US tend to treat 4M5m22 as balanced much more often than we do in the UK.

 

He's much less than 50:50 to have a singleton heart as you have 4 hearts and 5 diamonds and he may not have a singleton in either.

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there's that CY response

 

If partner shows a big hand that often has 6C, I am raising with the doubleton and not worrying about the horrible 24 count with values in its short suits

 

That was an example, there are plenty of hands at MPs where 5/4N is the limit and 5 will score really badly, AQJx, Q9(x), A, AKQJx(x) for example unless the heart suit is really unfortunate in the doubleton case, and even so you make 3 and score the same as 5.

 

I'd suggest it's only around 50:50 that partner has 6 or more clubs when he bids spades next.

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I've noticed from these boards that people in the US tend to treat 4M5m22 as balanced much more often than we do in the UK.

 

He's much less than 50:50 to have a singleton heart as you have 4 hearts and 5 diamonds and he may not have a singleton in either.

 

Ah ok. Big semi-balanced hand I try to be pragmatic. I wouldn’t even blame partner with the given hand to rebid 2NT 😇 (which strongly eases the discovery of a 44 S fit btw).

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Rebid 2NT - what else?

 

Now with most systems of bidding you stand very little chance of being able to explore both a 5-3 club fit and a 4-4 spade fit when you need to short of partner enquiring, you showing 4 spades and if he gives you the chance, you punting 6.

 

Example Kx, xxxx, Kxxx, Q10x where 6 is the slam to be in if you're in one, even worse if he transfers to diamonds.

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1. I agree with 2♣️ opening. West has a four-loser monster that will take very little to bring home a slam.

2. There is an obsession with people automatically reaching for the 2♦️ card in response and waiting for clarification. Should East make a positive noise with 5+ cards and 8+ points by bidding 3♦️?

3. The 3NT disease at matchpoints is understandable. Is a slam more easily found if East makes a positive response?

4. The ♣️ slam is 68% on a 3/2 split. As the cards lie, it’s double dummy. Are they good MPs odds? Maybe not.

5. If East responds 3♦️ will N lead a heart against 3NT by West?

6. Much of the above is affected by the space consumed by the 2♣️ opening, as has already been pointed out. But, I still open 2♣️.

 

D. K

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Hi,

 

given that you are 64 in the blacks, a 2C opening makes it hard to find a possible

44 spade fit. Given that the 2C opener is marginal 1C is better, may or may not help.

 

1C - 1D

2S - 2NT

3C - ...

 

3NT now looks like the normal bid, one sees 64, but Txxx finds quite often a honor with p

and sometimes hearts breaks 44.

 

With kind regards

Marlowe

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Lots of talk of 1♣️ opening in the replies.

 

Do you seriously want to risk being passed out, at any form of scoring, with this hand?

 

Add just the ♣️J to East’s hand and 6♣️ is virtually certain.

 

I would never open 1♣️ unless you’re playing 5 Card Majors with a forcing ♣️. Maybe all those advocating 1♣️ are assuming they are.

 

D.

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Do you seriously want to risk being passed out, at any form of scoring, with this hand?

I always used to think this too, until I started watching Peter Hollands' videos.

 

He would ask - can you come up with 3 other hands which would pass out 1 (and give a bad result)?

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