ahydra Posted July 1, 2018 Report Share Posted July 1, 2018 [hv=pc=n&n=sa9ha986dqj62ct87&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1n(12-14)p2h(!s)p2spp]133|200[/hv] IMPs (Swiss). Nobody vul. 1NT = 12-14, and a double of 2H would show hearts (basic agreements so no idea what partner would take 2S over 2H as). Double now is for takeout. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted July 1, 2018 Report Share Posted July 1, 2018 X seems normal. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
FelicityR Posted July 1, 2018 Report Share Posted July 1, 2018 I'm opening the North hand so you don't have to make a decision later, but if as here you have to make a call later in the auction I'd rather compete with Double than Pass lamely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gszes Posted July 1, 2018 Report Share Posted July 1, 2018 I consider this X to be decent mainly because NOTHING IN MY HAND IS WORSE OFF having the 1n bidder behind me. Give me 2k 2q 1j same distribution and pass happens in less than a heartbeat. My hand quality is the deciding factor not merely the lameness of passing:)) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted July 2, 2018 Report Share Posted July 2, 2018 Hi, dependes on mood, and on your agreements, what a bids partner had av. over the 1NT.We can show 4+H-4?, and partner does not need to have opening strength 8/9HCP in thegiven position / vul. is sufficent.Given this, we wont have a heart fit, but we still may have a minor suit fit.Most likely I would go with Pass. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted July 2, 2018 Report Share Posted July 2, 2018 This is a classic dilemma hand over a weak NT. Do you or don't you come in? RHO can be anywhere from 4-5 to a decent 10 count (i.e., not quite enough for 2 NT) You have about as good as possible hand that you could pass and then double. With the doubleton ♠, I'm doubling at NV. I'd very likely pass at VUL. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 It would be auto at MP. I pass at imps. Aside from the risk of getting smacked, you'll often force partner to convert a plus score on defence into a minus score on offence. He obviously won't be expecting A9 of trumps. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted July 3, 2018 Author Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Thanks all. Looks like wank and P_Marlowe come out on top, as the full hand was: [hv=pc=n&s=sq86hq42d754cak95&w=sjt532hj73d983cq6&n=sa9ha986dqj62ct87&e=sk74hkt5daktcj432&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1n(12-14)p2h(!s)p2sppdp3cppp]399|300[/hv] Partner tried her hardest in 3C but went down, with 2S also down. East afterwards was saying that she should have doubled. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Hi, if East always doubles with his hand, I will join the double club, not caring for the current result.Sorry: Pass by East is clear, if he doubles, he should expect 3Cx=, over tricks /XX possible. As it is, the passed hand has all the Aces, that would cover Easts Kings.Next time the Ace of Clubs switches place with either major suit Ace andthat is that. As I said, if South could have entered the bidding with a 4+H and 5+m hand androughly 10/11HCP, than the failure to do so, reduces the appeal of reopening, if he does not have a bid for this hand type, get in, ..., and this is regardlessof MP/ IMP. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Hi, if East always doubles with his hand, I will join the double club, not caring for the current result.Sorry: Pass by East is clear, if he doubles, he should expect 3Cx=, over tricks /XX possible. As it is, the passed hand has all the Aces, that would cover Easts Kings.Next time the Ace of Clubs switches place with either major suit Ace andthat is that. As I said, if South could have entered the bidding with a 4+H and 5+m hand androughly 10/11HCP, than the failure to do so, reduces the appeal of reopening, if he does not have a bid for this hand type, get in, ..., and this is regardlessof MP/ IMP. With kind regardsMarlowe E never doubles with this, if they do, partner has a zero count with 6 spades. I'd have opened 1N with the N hand and played there (the S hand is to me a 10 count not an 11 count so doesn't raise). I like the N hand, I'm somewhat surprised K&R rates it at 10.95, I rate it at 11.5, it agrees with me about the S hand (10.2). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nullve Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Thanks all. Looks like wank and P_Marlowe come out on top, as the full hand was: [hv=pc=n&s=sq86hq42d754cak95&w=sjt532hj73d983cq6&n=sa9ha986dqj62ct87&e=sk74hkt5daktcj432&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1n(12-14)p2h(!s)p2sppdp3cppp]399|300[/hv] Partner tried her hardest in 3C but went down, with 2S also down. East afterwards was saying that she should have doubled. ahydra[hv=pc=n&s=sq86hq42d754cak95&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1n(12-14)p2h(!s)p2sppdp?]133|200[/hv]What's going on here? I don't know the EW system, but the fact that West didn't open strongly suggests that he has only 5 spades. And the fact that East didn't superaccept is an indication he has only 2-3 S. So, depending on partner's balancing tendencies, he might be a huge favourite to hold exactly 2 spades. Assuming he is, then naïve LoTT suggests bidding, since there will be around 16 total trumps on average. But 4 trumps and 333 shape is a considerable negative adjustment factor (so-called!), and holding a quack in their trumps suit certinaly doesn't help, either, so I think South should expect only 15 total tricks. Then passing is clearly right if e.g. they're divided 9-6 or 8-7 in our favour, and not a total disaster at IMPs if they're divided 7-8 and opps would have doubled 3♣. So maybe South should pass? I know I would. :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 [hv=pc=n&s=sq86hq42d754cak95&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=pp1n(12-14)p2h(!s)p2sppdp?]133|200[/hv]What's going on here? I don't know the EW system, but the fact that West didn't open strongly suggests that he has only 5 spades. And the fact that East didn't superaccept is an indication he has only 2-3 S. So, depending on partner's balancing tendencies, he might be a huge favourite to hold exactly 2 spades. Assuming he is, then naïve LoTT suggests bidding, since there will be around 16 total trumps on average. But 4 trumps and 333 shape is a considerable negative adjustment factor (so-called!), and holding a quack in their trumps suit certinaly doesn't help, either, so I think South should expect only 15 total tricks. Then passing is clearly right if e.g. they're divided 9-6 or 8-7 in our favour, and not a total disaster at IMPs if they're divided 7-8 and opps would have doubled 3♣. So maybe South should pass? I know I would. :) 20:20 hindsight, partner is at least 2:1 to hold 4 clubs. The real danger is that W holds 6 spades and not enough for a first seat weak 2 by their methods (if they're playing 6-10 this is not unlikely). Prime example KJxxxx, xx, 10xxx, x with partner holding x, KJxx, KJxx, QJxx and the 1N bidder Axx, Axxx, AQ9, xxx, now 2♠x makes lots of tricks and 3♣ at least comes close and may make if they don't whistle diamonds through. If opps open much lighter weak 2s in first seat then your view is more reasonable. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Besides the obvious reason of not knowing the weak NT responder's strength, the main reason to pass this hand is that there is no guarantee that the opponents have a fit - this is not the same auction as 1S-P-2S-P-P-P - so the inference that we have an 8-card fit cannot be claimed. Climbing in at the 3-level with little-to-no assurance of a fit is a good way to turn a positive score into a negative score. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted July 3, 2018 Report Share Posted July 3, 2018 Besides the obvious reason of not knowing the weak NT responder's strength, the main reason to pass this hand is that there is no guarantee that the opponents have a fit - this is not the same auction as 1S-P-2S-P-P-P - so the inference that we have an 8-card fit cannot be claimed. Climbing in at the 3-level with little-to-no assurance of a fit is a good way to turn a positive score into a negative score. Opps are known to have a fit of 8-9 cards, partner doesn't find the reopening double with a hand he couldn't open unless they do. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
dokoko Posted July 14, 2018 Report Share Posted July 14, 2018 Opps are known to have a fit of 8-9 cards, partner doesn't find the reopening double with a hand he couldn't open unless they do. I guess winstonm talked of North not knowing about opps' fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts