straube Posted June 17, 2018 Report Share Posted June 17, 2018 I have more room (after a nebulous 1D opening) to handle GF 5+S/4H hands if they respond 1H first. I'm wondering how I would deal with contested auctions. 1D P 1H (2C) P P ? GF 5S/4H......easy, 2SGF 4S/5H......dbl?GF 4S/6H......dbl?GF 5S/6H......should have responded 1S? Are these comfortable solutions? Now a different auction.... 1D P !S (3C) P P ? Should 3H here be competitive/invitational? Then 4H would be 5/5 GF. Or do I need 3H to be GF 5/5? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
foobar Posted June 17, 2018 Report Share Posted June 17, 2018 Think you can extend your questions to Precision 1♦ as well. Woolsey's relay X after delayed interference might work well over 1♦ - 1M - (3♣) i.e.: 1♦ - 1M - (3♣): X: Puppet to 3♦, probably various sign offs, maybe hands without club stopper...3♦: Forcing with ♦s?...3♥: Forcing with ♥s...3♠: Forcing with ♠s...3N: TP; club stopper Alternatively, you can even incorporate transfers into the scheme (X is still the relay?), but not sure whether it buys much. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
benlessard Posted July 1, 2018 Report Share Posted July 1, 2018 If your willing to add some artificiality. I recommend my 1H/1S inversion. It handle both majors by responder better than standard methods and without the need for 1D-2M as reverse flannery or similar gadget. If responder got 54?? 1D-1H-1Nt (opener denied 3S/4H so we know there is no fit.)1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is) responder got 55??1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is)1D-1H-1Nt (when responder rebid 2H it will show 5♥ not 4♥) so if opener is 23?? we will play 2♥ not 2♠. responder got 64??1D-1H-1S (we know we have a fit in the major but we dont know where it is)1D-1H-1NT responder can rebid ♠ and be sure not to miss a 4-4 ♥ fit. responder got 45??1D-1H-1S (responder will rebid 2H to show 5,we might play 2S in a 43 fit if its 45?? vs 31??1D-1H-1NT (since opener deny 3S, we are very likely to have a ♥ fit unless 2254) responder got 44??this is where we are at a disadvantage in reaching some 2M in 4-3 but we are never missing a 4-4 M fit compared to 1D-1H-1NT where you can miss a 4-4 !S fit1D-1H-1NT= no fit so we are ok1D-1H-1S= here we might have a 44 ♥ fit but maybe we only have a 43 ♠ fit, the solution to avoid too many bad 2♠ is that if opener is 3343 and 12-14 he rebid 1NT (rather than 1S) even with 3♠. On those hand the inversion do a lot better than standard method even if you don't use 1D-2M for both M by responder. The exception is when its 1D-1H-2C where responder could have 5H and we might have a 5-3♥ fit. You also have a lot of others advantage from the method. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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