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Walsh 1D over 1C


dickiegera

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[hv=pc=n&s=s962h843d74cak652&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1dp1nppp]133|200[/hv]

 

 

Playing walsh does 1 asking partner to bid 1NT, if balanced need to be alerted?

 

If are short as in example is the main purpose of question.

 

Also does 1NT bid need alerted as could be bypassing a 4 card major?

 

 

Thank you

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[hv=pc=n&s=s962h843d74cak652&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=1cp1dp1nppp]133|200[/hv]

 

 

Playing walsh does 1 asking partner to bid 1NT, if balanced need to be alerted?

 

If are short as in example is the main purpose of question.

 

Also does 1NT bid need alerted as could be bypassing a 4 card major?

 

 

Thank you

This is obviously a matter of jurisdiction and regulation.

I do not know ACBL rules, but where I play the 1 bid must be alerted (among other reasons) because it does not "promise" at least four cards in Diamonds.

A 1NT bid need not be alerted on the sole ground that it bypasses a 4 card major.

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This is obviously a matter of jurisdiction and regulation.

I do not know ACBL rules, but where I play the 1 bid must be alerted (among other reasons) because it does not "promise" at least four cards in Diamonds.

A 1NT bid need not be alerted on the sole ground that it bypasses a 4 card major.

 

who says 1d doesn't guarantee 4 diamonds? it does in walsh, though of course it may not in whatever system you play. anyway, it wouldn't need to guarantee 4d in the acbl. 3 would be sufficient to be non-alertable.

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As I understand Walsh, 1 does not ask opener to bid 1NT. Rather it says that if opener rebids 1NT, and if responder has a four card major, responder has enough to bid again over 1NT. And I wouldn't bid 1 with the given hand. Looks more like a 3 bid to me.

 

1 playing Walsh does not require an alert in ACBL. Neither does the 1NT rebid.

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who says 1d doesn't guarantee 4 diamonds? it does in walsh, though of course it may not in whatever system you play. anyway, it wouldn't need to guarantee 4d in the acbl. 3 would be sufficient to be non-alertable.

The OP seems to be confused about what Walsh style means. But his example shows bidding 1 with only 2 diamonds. If that's part of their agreed system, it needs to be alerted.

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well, yes, the op is evidently misplaying walsh.

Or playing something different and mis-calling it Walsh.

 

There's some relationship between what he's playing and Walsh. In Walsh, you often bid a 4-card major even though you have a biddable diamond suit, therefore bidding 1 over 1 suggests that you don't have a major, and opener can bypass their major to bid 1NT. The OP has taken this to an extreme, bidding 1 whenever you don't have a 4-card major, even if you don't have diamonds. Or maybe it's optional: he might bid 1NT himself if he has better texture in the majors rather than small cards in both.

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