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What is your rebid


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4H or 4S looks normal.

I might even be too strong for a splinter - let alone a fit at 4M. So over 1H, I bid a forcing 2S followed by 4H. Over 1S, 4C (some have a 3H bid for those hands btw, between the reverse and the splinter, when bidding space permits, for a super strong fit).

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I like a reverse, however you play it,

 

1 - 2 or 1 - 2 in my partnership

 

Usually followed by a jump to game in responders suit but over these we play 2nt starts weak/invitational sequences and a suit bid is a natural game force. If you are lucky enough to get a GF (doesn't need much in strength if shapely) slam is possible or even probable.

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For me, a 5-loser hand is not too strong for a splinter, but queens are the wrong kind of losers unless we are playing strict loser-count/cover-card type systems. 4441 strength is hard without a strong Roman bid available. Take a guess and go with that. I think all bids are equally reasonable and equally flawed at this point.

 

Me, I would splinter and then over the expected 4S sign off bid 5S - and get us too high. :P

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I'm with ggwhiz on this one. I like reversing with this hand, then jumping, if possible, in partner's suit. It should show a hand with shortness that is just too good to splinter.

 

Give responder something like KQxxx Qxx Qx xx and it's hard to move over a direct 4 S (or 4 H if you flip the majors). Neither will this hand move over a splinter which can be made on a decent 16-17. But after something like

 

1 - 1

2 - 2

4

 

responder will know opener's hand is either 4=3=5=1. 4=4=4=1, or 4=4=5=0 and very strong and might make a move.

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I like a reverse, however you play it,

 

1 - 2 or 1 - 2 in my partnership

 

I fully agree with the reverse in either suit, but no jumps on our side.

This is already a GF in our systems, so if partner does not jump to game slam investigation is both indicated and simple.

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In nearly all my partnerships, we play 1 - 1 - 3 as a round suit splinter (3 or 5 level force). After 1, there isn't as much room.

 

But honestly this hand isn't that sexy. I think we should content ourselves with 4 and give up after 4M.

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I just had this hand in a team match this aft.

 

Qxxx AKx J AKxxx opposite

 

Axxx xx AKxx Txx

 

We don't play splinters at all so it went 1 - 1 and I bid 2 considering too much potential for a jump to 4. When partner bid 3nt over that I bid 4. With the quite apparent diamond waste and a 4-1 spade split it was just in.

 

Just curious as to how others would bid it as our opponents got to slam -2 albeit after a 1 - 1 - 1 - 4 start which I doubt would be a consensus choice.

 

My main beef with splinters is making one owning all the outside cue bids where partner bids 4 almost auto.

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I just had this hand in a team match this aft.

 

Qxxx AKx J AKxxx opposite

 

Axxx xx AKxx Txx

 

We don't play splinters at all so it went 1 - 1 and I bid 2 considering too much potential for a jump to 4. When partner bid 3nt over that I bid 4. With the quite apparent diamond waste and a 4-1 spade split it was just in.

 

Just curious as to how others would bid it as our opponents got to slam -2 albeit after a 1 - 1 - 1 - 4 start which I doubt would be a consensus choice.

 

My main beef with splinters is making one owning all the outside cue bids where partner bids 4 almost auto.

 

I'd probably bid it the same as you.

 

By patterning out with a reverse, you spotlighted the problem and avoided the slam. By bidding 4 immediately, it makes responder's hand look pretty good for slam. If you still use splinters, then you can almost reserve them for hands with flaws in the suit you hold -- maybe something like KQJx QJx J AKxxx.

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You hold Axxx

AKxx

AKxx

K

 

Assuming you don't open 2NT and you bid 1D and partner responds either 1H or 1S what is your rebid?

 

Thanks all

 

First of all I would never open NTs with a singleton regardless of pointage Until you know partner holds the Ace,the K might

just as well be a small one. If partner responds in a major suit, The hand is revalued as 20 points,the club king being valued as a

singleton i.e, 2 points so the rebid is either 4 or 4depending on which major partner bid.

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The hand is the right power/shape for 4c and if we can assume responder is generally weak I think 4c is just right. The problem is that responder may very well downgrade a hand like KQxx (fixed from QJxx ty to cyber) xx xx QJTxx when 6s is a wonderful spot and that is with a WEAK hand what about strong ones where suddenly the AQxx of clubs no longer looks very good? I would go for the reverse concept as having a better chance of finding the right strain/level. Keeping the bidding lower can sometimes yield surprisingly good results.
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The hand is the right power/shape for 4c and if we can assume responder is generally weak I think 4c is just right. The problem is that responder may very well downgrade a hand like QJxx xx xx QJTxx when 6s is a wonderful spot and that is with a WEAK hand what about strong ones where suddenly the AQxx of clubs no longer looks very good? I would go for the reverse concept as having a better chance of finding the right strain/level. Keeping the bidding lower can sometimes yield surprisingly good results.

 

I think you misread the hand in the OP, 6 is no play opposite it.

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For now. What's next over the easy/auto 4 or 4 bid?

 

Partner won't necessarily bid 4 of his major. If he does, you pass. You've shown a game force with a stiff club and it's not like you have substantially more than that. The Kc isn't worth much more than a small stiff

 

Cheers

Mike

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I'm with ggwhiz on this one. I like reversing with this hand, then jumping, if possible, in partner's suit. It should show a hand with shortness that is just too good to splinter.

 

Give responder something like KQxxx Qxx Qx xx and it's hard to move over a direct 4 S (or 4 H if you flip the majors). Neither will this hand move over a splinter which can be made on a decent 16-17. But after something like

 

1 - 1

2 - 2

4

 

responder will know opener's hand is either 4=3=5=1. 4=4=4=1, or 4=4=5=0 and very strong and might make a move.

 

How does responder know opener has 4 spades rather than 3? (3451 or 3460) That would make a difference in many cases where responder considers slam, as a 9-fit plays a lot better than an 8-fit.

 

IMHO, always support immediately with support. If not playing a system where I can show a strong 4441, I'd start with 1D and rebid 4C.

 

ahydra

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I would splinter, We play that a jump to 4/4 specifically denies shortage.

 

I am not a fan of the 1 opening. I would open (in order of preference):

- 2 - if our muti includes strong 4441 hands.

- 2NT - I am prepared to treat as balanced. (Much less of a distortion than, for example, reversing with this shape).

- 1 - We play four-card majors and whilst I would normally open 1 with this shape, we are so strong that we can open 1 and cope with any response (if we get any).

- 1 - 4th choice!

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You hold Axxx

AKxx

AKxx

K

 

Assuming you don't open 2NT and you bid 1D and partner responds either 1H or 1S what is your rebid?

 

Thanks all

I used to play an opening of 2 diamonds to mean a 4-4-4-1 and 17-21 HCP. Responder bids 2 Hearts to ask for the singleton. Opener bids the suit below the stiff. Then responder calls the shots. If it is 1 diamond--1M, then I ask for aces. This hand is too good to settle for less than slam if one ace is present in partner's hand.
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4S.

 

This shows about 20 points, typically balanced or semi-balanced with 4 card support.

 

The power raise is superior to the 4C splinter rebid. With a stiff King, you don't want to encourage partner to devalue club holdings like Axx, AQx, Qxx, or QJx by showing shortness in that suit.

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