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Six minor and 4 card major support


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x AKxx AKQxxx xx

 

1 - 1 -

4

 

What's the difference between this to

1 - 1 -

4

 

?

 

In the first sequence,, the 4 rebid is ridiculous. You have a known 8 card major suit fit so what's the point

in rebidding a minor suit?! Add to this that 4 diamonds is not forcing and if partner passes(which he's entitled to do)

a sure-fire game or even a possible slam in hearts will go begging.

 

In the second sequence opener's hand swells to 19 points due to the heart fit being found and he can confidently

bid game in hearts. The moral of the post is if you know where you're going, don't dilly dally go there post haste

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Phil is right if you don't have a firm partnership agreement. If you do, that's a different matter. For example, 1-1-4 makes a great deal of sense as a slam-worthy heart raise that wants to emphasize long, strong diamonds. This is, of course, forcing.
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In the first sequence,, the 4 rebid is ridiculous. You have a known 8 card major suit fit so what's the point

in rebidding a minor suit?! Add to this that 4 diamonds is not forcing and if partner passes(which he's entitled to do)

a sure-fire game or even a possible slam in hearts will go begging.

 

In the second sequence opener's hand swells to 19 points due to the heart fit being found and he can confidently

bid game in hearts. The moral of the post is if you know where you're going, don't dilly dally go there post haste

Phil, not so ridiculous as you may think. A pretty standard meaning for this bid is as described above by Spotlight7. In other words, it's 100% forcing.

Think about it--if 1 - 1 - 3 is highly invitational (but not forcing) why would a 4 rebid carry the same meaning?

Would it be "really-really invitational? Even more so than 3?" Of course not.

 

Perhaps another use, such as a picture bid, would make sense here? Look it up. There are several references to "picture bids" on the internet if you make use of Google.

 

The moral of the post is, if you have a strong hand, show it, but it is often wise to describe your hand (dilly dally) along the way.

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1D-1H-4D shows that hand long strong Ds and 4H

 

 

1D-1H-4H should be @18+-19 and balanced

I tend to disagree with this evaluation. For the first auction, 1, 1; 4 says nothing about heart support, but simply shows a strong hand with diamonds. For the second auction, 1, 1; 4 this would show 19+ hcp with at least 3 card (preferably more) support. I would make the second bid.

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Using 4!D to show a 4-6 hand is a very common convention. I thought it was considered standard, but the responses here have shown that it isn't. But it's part of Bridge World Standard

After a one-of-a-suit response, opener's double-jump rebid in his own suit (e.g., one club — one spade — four clubs) shows a game-forcing raise with strong four-card support and a long (typically six-card), strong suit.

But if you don't have that agreement, a splinter into the singleton would be the appropriate bid.

 

In either case, if you just jump to game in responder's suit you're showing a more balanced hand, since you couldn't splinter.

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As is the case with many BBO bidding questions there are several answers, depending on your partner. It is fairly normal amongst good partnerships for a 4D rebid to show a 4-6 hand, and that is what you would expect the bid to mean If playing with a good pick up partner who recognised you as also being experienced.

 

Playing with a decent partner, but one with whom you don’t haven’t established mutual confidence, it might be best to use a splinter bid with a 4-6 hand, as this is pretty unambiguous. Playing with a completely unknown partner maybe it is safest to make a direct raise to game on any hand, 4-6 or otherwise, that is strong enough to play at that level.

 

To put it another way, spotlight’s initial response is correct, but as subsequent responses have indicated it might not be a good idea to assume that your partner is on the same wavelength.

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I am aware that many use 1, 1; 4 to show 6-4 shape, but I can't remember ever discussing this with partner (I should!) so I would choose to splinter instead. You can always splinter with this shape.

 

The sequence 1, 1; 4 always denies a shortage and will generally be stronger in terms of High Card Points - a good 18+ (this I have discussed with partner!).

 

I can see a possible case for the 1, 1; 4 sequence to show a single suited diamond hand just short of game forcing strength (8/9+ playing tricks). I can see no case for the sequence being non-forcing.

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In the first sequence,, the 4 rebid is ridiculous. You have a known 8 card major suit fit so what's the point

in rebidding a minor suit?! Add to this that 4 diamonds is not forcing and if partner passes(which he's entitled to do)

a sure-fire game or even a possible slam in hearts will go begging.

 

In the second sequence opener's hand swells to 19 points due to the heart fit being found and he can confidently

bid game in hearts. The moral of the post is if you know where you're going, don't dilly dally go there post haste

 

I agree if partner wants to unnecessarily bid a minor at the 4 level then surely it should be 4C Gerber??

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What would you do if you have a 1-1-10-1 hand like x x AKQJxxxxxx x ?

 

If you're making system decisions just to cater for this sort of hand, you're not really looking at the bigger picture.

 

Two questions:

  1. When was the last time you picked up a 10-card suit?
  2. Of those times, when was the last time you had an uncontested auction?

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