easy Posted July 20, 2003 Report Share Posted July 20, 2003 imps all vulnerable 974 9653 T8765 8 rho opens 1h, p p x p ?? What do u do and why. Pls give in depth reasons if possible. This question is posted because last nite when kibitzing a very good player the obvious bid (imho) was not made. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Antoine Fourrière Posted July 20, 2003 Report Share Posted July 20, 2003 I bid 2D, 0-10, 4+ cards unless I'm 2=6=3=2.At least I have a five-card suit, which I intend to rebid over CHO's cue-bids. (RHO won't be nice enough to double them. He would have redoubled or bid 1N.) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 20, 2003 Report Share Posted July 20, 2003 I would bid 2D. 1S is a possibility, but I have a pile of rubbish and the bid that is likely to make my partner excited is 1S. I don't want partner to raise to 3 or 4S. These contracts are still possibilities if pd has a uge hand and forces. Furthermore after a force, when I bid S pd should realise that this is a 3 card suit, as I would strive to show a 4 card M ahead of a longer minor. (In my regular partnership, I would bid 2C which is a transfer to D any strength.) Ron Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
henrik_r Posted July 21, 2003 Report Share Posted July 21, 2003 2D is my bid. I would guess that my partner is (very) strong as opener did nor RD and is very likely to have clubs. Even though 1S keeps the bidding as low as possible, it is dangerous as partner won't let me out at a low level if he has 4s. Even worse he could cuebid 2H with 3S and a balanced hand. Then what am I supposed to do? It is usually at very good idea to respond your longest suit after a T/O D and not trying to be "clever" Regards, Henrik Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luis Posted July 21, 2003 Report Share Posted July 21, 2003 1 spade.The most doscuraging bid I can make. IMO a 2d or 2c bid as well as 1nt does promise some values, about 7+HCP. OTOH 1s can be 0hcp and as in this case a 3 card suit. Luis Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mishovnbg Posted July 21, 2003 Report Share Posted July 21, 2003 1SP: 0-7hcp, 3+SP By theory of responses to take out dbl with 0-3hcp you must tend to keep level low, if possible. With 4-7hcp can show your best suit. Why? Because with so few hcp you expect parner to have a lot of them and must leave bidding space for his rebids. With 2DI response he lose his 1NT and 2CL rebid and will be very difficulte for him to decide what to bid with near to game strength. At last, if he raise you to 4SP, even with 4 cards, it will be probably best game, because you can ruff CL form short side trump and dont forget - opponents dont know you have only 3 SP B). Misho Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rado Posted July 21, 2003 Report Share Posted July 21, 2003 Hi all, 1Sp, see Misho's reasons, regrads, Rado Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
easy Posted July 21, 2003 Author Report Share Posted July 21, 2003 imps all vulnerable 974 9653 T8765 8 rho opens 1h, p p x p ?? What do u do and why. Pls give in depth reasons if possible. This question is posted because last nite when kibitzing a very good player the obvious bid (imho) was not made. Interesting comments. I personally would be reluctant to bid 1s on this hand because if pard raises to 3/4 with heart leads u will be ruffing in the long hand of trump. so i would have bid 2d myself. however no one came up with the bid made at the table. That call was PassAnd one of the kibitzers (an expert that plays with the "stars" regularly)commented that that was the correct call. How can that be? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted July 22, 2003 Report Share Posted July 22, 2003 1Spade. For two reasons. First, over 1H x (even balance), the one suit I expect partner to have is spades. Second, if partner has spades and clubs (a real possibility, if I bid 2D, he is bidding again, and we will get to a worse contract (2S). I would never, ever, not once, consider pass. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted July 22, 2003 Report Share Posted July 22, 2003 Interesting comments. snipped no one came up with the bid made at the table. That call was PassAnd one of the kibitzers (an expert that plays with the "stars" regularly)commented that that was the correct call. How can that be? Pass is NOT an option. There are hands where 1HX makes and you are cold for slam and the auction could start the same way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mishovnbg Posted July 23, 2003 Report Share Posted July 23, 2003 Pass is NOT an option. There are hands where 1HX makes and you are cold for slam and the auction could start the same way. Ron, you are not exactly right friend. Pass is option, if you want to lose/drive away partner ;D. Misho Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted July 25, 2003 Report Share Posted July 25, 2003 Pass is option, if you want to lose/drive away partner ;D. Misho LOLOLOL..... This is why Misho is such a valid member of our community.... Makes his point and my day all at once. Ben Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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