zg1984 Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 (edited) If I am using 2/1 and my partner opens 1H and I hold: [hv=pc=n&n=sakq65432h2d32c32&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1hp]133|200[/hv] What is my bid?My guess would be 1NT, followed by Spades on my second bid. Alternatively, what is my response to 1H if I have: [hv=pc=n&n=sakqjt432h2da2c32&d=s&v=0&b=11&a=1hp]133|200[/hv] Glenn Edited June 27, 2017 by barmar Convert to hand diagrams Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
GrahamJson Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 They both look like 1S bids to me, although 4S would be ok with the first and 2S followed by 4S with the second (unless you play weak jump shifts, which seems to be the current popular approach). Neither is a 1NT bid, unless you have a specific agreement with partner on this. With some players if you respond 1NT to an opening 1H and then bid 2S it would be taken as a showing both minors, as it couldn't possibly be natural given that you have denied a spade suit with your 1NT response. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kaitlyn S Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 You have two four card majors (both spades) and I would show one of them :D 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
steve2005 Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 Where did you get 1N as the obvious bid? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fromageGB Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 2/1 doesn't apply to spades. The normal thing is to bid spades, always 1♠, then make a forcing bid of some sort over a non-forcing reply. Rebidding spades below game may be passed, so if you want to be in game you have to either rebid game, or bid a new - possibly invented - minor if you need to hear more from partner. And you hope that is not five of the minor. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 Typically, it's OK to assume partner has at least a stiff in your suit when trying to evaluate a distributional hand. With either of these hands, you want to play in ♠ for sure opposite a stiff. For the first hand, it depends on your agreements about the potential meaning of what 4 ♠ would mean. If partner would take that as natural, then that would be a possibility. Otherwise, start with 1 ♠. If partner makes a minimum rebid, then rebid 4 ♠ next. If partner shows extras, slam may be a possibility with this 8 card suit. It should be 1 ♠ to be sure for the second hand. Then you should follow with a forcing rebid, followed by ♠ at least to 4 ♠ on the 2nd rebid. Slam may be a possibility even opposite a minimum 1 ♥ opener with this hand. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
johnu Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 How would you respond playing standard American, acol, or whatever your preferred system is? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted June 26, 2017 Report Share Posted June 26, 2017 I would bid 1♠ with the first one playing any system. On the second I would bid a strong jump shift in spades if available; for me that would be 2NT and that is what I would bid. 1NT is not in the ballpark, or even in the universe. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted June 27, 2017 Report Share Posted June 27, 2017 Bidding 1NT generally denies a spade suit of 4 or more cards. In fact, if the auction goes 1♥-1NT-2minor-2♠, this is usually played as a convention called "Impossible Spade", showing a good raise for opener's minor (around 11 points and 5+ cards in the suit). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
zg1984 Posted June 27, 2017 Author Report Share Posted June 27, 2017 Thanks for all the answers. It seems that, just because I am playing 2/1, does not mean all bids between us must start out that way. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
barmar Posted June 28, 2017 Report Share Posted June 28, 2017 Thanks for all the answers. It seems that, just because I am playing 2/1, does not mean all bids between us must start out that way.Yes, that seems to be a common misunderstand of newcomers to the system -- they think that if they have a game forcing hand they must start with a 2/1 bid, and if they bid 1/1 they're denying that strength. But it's the other way around: you need a stronger hand to bid 2/1, but 1-level suit bids are mostly unchanged from Standard American. 1NT is the catch-all bid you use when you can't make some other bid, either because you're not strong enough for a game force, or because you don't have a biddable suit on the 1 level. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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