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ATB - laydown 3N, with a couple of minor flaws


  

21 members have voted

  1. 1. What should have happened?

    • Exactly what did
    • N should have passed initially
      0
    • S should have raised spades
      0
    • S should have bid 3N over 2S
      0
    • N should have passed 2N
      0
    • N should have cued 3D over 2N (meaning what?)
      0
    • N should have bid 3S over 2N
    • N should have bid 4S over 2N
    • Other
    • N should have bid 3S over 1N
    • S should have passed 2S


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. It is obvious that a diamond was the opening lead when on the bidding a club or less likely a heart lead was a marked opening lead "keeping just a little respect for the opponents".The question should have been "Which/what was the worst bid ?".
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[hv=pc=n&s=s97hq652dakq4c965&n=sakqjt85ht83djct4&d=e&v=n&b=2&a=1dp1n2sp2np3nppp]266|200[/hv]

 

IMP pairs. What went wrong here?

North is most definitely the villain of the piece here. That glorious spade suit is too good for just

a simple overcall. By bidding 4 direct North is TELLING his partner what the final contract should be.

It also has the merit of stifling the opposition. ;)

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North is most definitely the villain of the piece here. That glorious spade suit is too good for just

a simple overcall. By bidding 4 direct North is TELLING his partner what the final contract should be.

It also has the merit of stifling the opposition. ;)

Is there anything wrong if North supposes that South may be having a hand like xx-Axx-Axxxx-Axx.?Certainly Norths vision may be considered blurred but he is not a villain,

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North is most definitely the villain of the piece here. That glorious spade suit is too good for just

a simple overcall. By bidding 4 direct North is TELLING his partner what the final contract should be.

It also has the merit of stifling the opposition. ;)

 

Where is the benefit of being in 4 compared to 3N? Both are going down.

 

S is the villain. His partner has and nothing else given the bidding to date. Seems clear to me to PASS 2, even though it is not an option given in the vote!

Norths mistake was bidding at all as the best possible result is 1N-3. I expect W has a good club suit and not enough points to bid 2 so he will run to a making 2 if anyone doubles.

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North is most definitely the villain of the piece here. That glorious spade suit is too good for just

a simple overcall. By bidding 4 direct North is TELLING his partner what the final contract should be.

It also has the merit of stifling the opposition. ;)

 

Agree that North should bid differently.

 

However, 4 is . . . villanous, would result in glorious shame, and has few merits.

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Where is the benefit of being in 4 compared to 3N? Both are going down.

 

S is the villain. His partner has and nothing else given the bidding to date. Seems clear to me to PASS 2, even though it is not an option given in the vote!

Norths mistake was bidding at all as the best possible result is 1N-3. I expect W has a good club suit and not enough points to bid 2 so he will run to a making 2 if anyone doubles.

I fully agree that Souths 2NT was an extravagant and totally unacceptable bid when North has clearly indicated that he is competing with only spades oriented hand and making the opponents to guess what to bid at 3 level if at all they wanted to.South had not the vision that West had certainly a long club suit having failed to support diamonds or bid hearts. .South should have passed quickly since he has no guard at all in club suit and almost none worth mention in heart suit also.With AKQ of diamonds in his hand where are the opponent Points ? Obviously in H and C only.It is very lucky that he was not doubled and lost the first 7 or 8 tricks.The less said about the three excepting North the better.!,

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Where is the benefit of being in 4 compared to 3N? Both are going down.

 

S is the villain. His partner has and nothing else given the bidding to date. Seems clear to me to PASS 2, even though it is not an option given in the vote!

Norths mistake was bidding at all as the best possible result is 1N-3. I expect W has a good club suit and not enough points to bid 2 so he will run to a making 2 if anyone doubles.

4 can make 10 tricks ( 7 spades + 3 diamonds.) 3NT goes down among the dead men on a club lead.

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Is there anything wrong if North supposes that South may be having a hand like xx-Axx-Axxxx-Axx.?Certainly Norths vision may be considered blurred but he is not a villain,

With the hand you quoted 4 still makes (7 spades + the three side suit aces.)

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4 can make 10 tricks ( 7 spades + 3 diamonds.) 3NT goes down among the dead men on a club lead.

I suspect that making those 10 tricks may be problematic after the defence have cashed the first 5 (2 Clubs and 3 Hearts).

 

Yes 4S can make on a pointy suit lead. But then 3N makes the same.

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I suspect that making those 10 tricks may be problematic after the defence have cashed the first 5 (2 Clubs and 3 Hearts).

 

Yes 4S can make on a pointy suit lead. But then 3N makes the same.

Not on a club lead it doesn't <_<

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How does 3NT make on a club lead? This I gotta see(!)��

 

Sheesh! You are being deliberately obtuse.

 

Let me ask you this: How does 4S make on a club lead? This I gotta see(!)

 

My comment to which you responded, highlighted so that even you can see it was:

 

"Yes, 4S can make ON A POINTY SUIT LEAD. But *THEN* (ie on a pointy suit lead) 3N makes the same."

 

At what point in this sentence to you suggest that I am implying a Club lead? I repeat, in what universe that you inhabit is a Club a pointy suit?

 

Just in case the terminology is new to you, a Pointy suit is Spades or Diamonds, because the top of the suit symbol ends in a sharp point, as opposed to a "rounded" suit (Hearts or Clubs).

 

Nowhere in this thread did I ever suggest that 3N makes on a Club lead. You however did suggest that 4S makes.

 

To really spell it out. 3N and 4S both fail on a Club or Heart lead. Both succeed on a Spade or Diamond lead. You argued that 4S is superior "because it makes". Even you should be able to see the fallacy.

 

You apparently get the right to choose the opening lead that happens to defeat both 3N and 4S as an argument against 3N, and at the same time the right to choose the opening lead that happens to allow both 3N and 4S to make as an argument in favour of 4S.

 

You could argue that 4S is superior because it is ONLY going to go two down when it fails, where 3N is likely to go more down. You could argue that. But you didn't.

 

Had it been someone else making your points I would have assumed it was a wind-up. But given your form I am inclined to believe that you are serious.

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Had it been someone else making your points I would have assumed it was a wind-up. But given your form I am inclined to believe that you are serious.

 

Not quite sure why you would make that assumption. There has been precious little evidence supporting it thus far.

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South made a slightly aggressive bid to try for game. IF North is just competing with a good weak two-bid type hand, bidding may get the partnership too high.

 

Had West led a diamond, South would run ten tricks. If South held the king of clubs instead of the king of diamonds, game would be laydown on a minor suit lead. The only way to set the contract would be a heart to East's ace, followed by a club switch with West holding the ace. Very unlikely.

So North's bidding was fine. It's easier to take nine tricks with the lead coming up to the South hand than 10 from the North side.

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