ahydra Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 ♠AKxx ♥9x ♦Axx ♣AQxx I (North) held this at matchpoints, NS vulnerable. Opponents are of fairly weak standard. [hv=d=n&v=n&b=5&a=1c(NAT%20or%2015-19%20BAL)p1s(weak%20no%204cM%20or%20INV%2B%20with%20D)p2n(17-18)3dppdppp]133|100[/hv] System is weak NT with 5cM, transfer Walsh. How greedy is my MP double here? My thinking was: - what kind of hand can bid 3D but not 1D- I'm holding 4 tricks, and partner showed some defensive strength- I want to protect my 120; 100 isn't going to cut it As you might have guessed by the fact I posted this, 3DX made - declarer had 3451 and dummy came down with a bucketload of running hearts and the SQ opposite declarer's 10, so we could only take 2S, 1D and 1C. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
WesleyC Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 Obviously you double. Give declarer a 4351 shape instead (with dummy the same) and you probably get 300/500. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alok c Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 You have described your hand adequately,17-18 pts generally provide around 4Q.T, let partner decide whether he can provide some. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 Double is for sure a top-or-bottom action. One thing I wonder, why are you so sure you had 120? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
akwoo Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 Double is for sure a top-or-bottom action. One thing I wonder, why are you so sure you had 120? If he doesn't have +120, then the -100 he would've gotten still loses to -110. Here's what I really wanted to know and you didn't tell us. What was the MP difference between -110 and -470? Double is a top-or-bottom action, but those are good things when the bidding has already put you at 30% without the double. 2 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 If he doesn't have +120, then the -100 he would've gotten still loses to -110. Here's what I really wanted to know and you didn't tell us. What was the MP difference between -110 and -470? Double is a top-or-bottom action, but those are good things when the bidding has already put you at 30% without the double.Actually, I misread the vulnerability, thinking EW were vul and that -1 for +200 was possible. As I general rule, I don't double nonvul ops for -1. At matchpoints, there is usually little difference between +50 and +100, so the upside is not very large. In the OP, the hover description of 1♠ is "weak no 4 card major", but the text says "partner showed some defensive strength" - not sure how those go together. Expecting two tricks from partner seems like a lot. On the other hand, east's bidding is bollox and certainly deserves -500. Overall I lean toward pass but I have sympathy for double. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
wank Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 P didn't smack it. It sounds like p has lots of clubs. You have more clubs than you promised. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ahydra Posted December 9, 2016 Author Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 Here's what I really wanted to know and you didn't tell us. What was the MP difference between -110 and -470? Actually quite a bit :(. There were three NS plus scores (2NT did make, as did 2S) and four of EW making 140 in hearts, so -110 would be better than average for NS. However, at the time I could hardly divine the opps had a lovely nine-card heart fit (though they do certainly have an eight-card fit). In the OP, the hover description of 1♠ is "weak no 4 card major", but the text says "partner showed some defensive strength" - not sure how those go together. Partner will have a (5)6-9 hand without a 4cM, the type that would respond 1NT to 1M in SAYC for example. He won't have a long diamond suit, so is likely to hold a flattish hand. If he had a blizzard he would pass 1C. ahydra Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
billw55 Posted December 9, 2016 Report Share Posted December 9, 2016 Partner will have a (5)6-9 hand without a 4cM, the type that would respond 1NT to 1M in SAYC for example. He won't have a long diamond suit, so is likely to hold a flattish hand. If he had a blizzard he would pass 1C. OK thanks, I wasn't sure what the explanation "weak" meant in context. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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