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Worth a look?


  

14 members have voted

  1. 1. Agree with first pass?

  2. 2. Action now?



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[hv=pc=n&s=sqjt9ha93daq84c75&d=n&v=0&b=1&a=p1hpp1sp]133|200[/hv]

 

IMP pairs.

 

We're playing an 11.5-14 NT and Fantunes (meaning with an unbalanced hand, 10+ points and 5+ spades, P would have opened the bidding), so the best you can hope for opposite is a moderate balanced 11 count or a distributional 9-count.

 

Do you act now? Do you agree with the initial pass? Would 2 just be competing here?

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If I don't cue bid on the second round, what kind of hand would? I can see an argument for 2NT (4 card raise) but other than that...

 

I think playing 2 NT for raise in this position is not good.

We are not coming from pass. We passed 1. There is a huge difference between the two.

One of the reasons people pass with values is that when they bid our suit. And we will need 2 NT to be natural on this particular auction. A hand that was probably not good enough for 1 NT overcall or did not have the shape for it (such as stiff or void spade)

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And we will need 2 NT to be natural on this particular auction. A hand that was probably not good enough for 1 NT overcall or did not have the shape for it (such as stiff or void spade)

Why do you believe 2N as NAT INV is needed here but not in response to a 2/1 or Fantunes 1 opening? Is it because the balancing 1 overcall doesn't promise 5+ S? If it does, then it can be treated much like a standard 1 opening except for the obvious range adjustments that have to be made. For example, if you play

 

1 = "11-21, 5+ S" (=> 1N = 5-12, semi-forcing),

 

then you can also play

 

P-(1)-P-(P); 1 = "7-10, 5+ S" (=> 1N = 9-16, semi-forcing)

 

and not be worse off after the balancing overcall than after the opening, at least in the otherwise uncontested bidding.

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