email quiz

[mike777]

KTxxxx...x....KQJx....Ax

 

imps both vul. 2/1 gf

 

 

1s=1nt

2d=3h

 

 

1) What does 3h show?

2) is 3h forcing?

3) your call now?

[MrAce]

KTxxxx...x....KQJx....Ax

 

imps both vul. 2/1 gf

 

 

1s=1nt

2d=3h

 

 

1) What does 3h show?

2) is 3h forcing?

3) your call now?

 

It depends on your other agreements in the system

 

if 1♠--3♥ was invitational, or if 2♥ response followed by 3♥ is invitational then this auction you have is a splinter agreeing on diamonds.

If there was no way of showing 6 card ♥ and an invitational hand then your auction shows invitation in hearts.

 

 

[rmnka447]

Lacking any special agreements, it should show the 10-12 point hand with 6 decent ♥. After opener's 1 ♠ followed by 2 ♦ over the Forcing NT, opener's hand has shown 8+ cards in the pointed suits. So there's no guarantee of a ♥ fit. Therefore, partner has to take that into consideration when bidding 3 ♥ and needs to have a suit that could play opposite a stiff or small doubleton. Occasionally, that may mean that responder has to bid 2 NT as a catchall bid when holding 10-12 with 5 ♥ or 6+ with bad spots.

 

It is not forcing. To go on, you need to be in the top end of the simple rebid zone (really good 14 - 16) over the Forcing NT.

 

The possible choices over 3 ♥ are 3 ♠ or pass. Since, like responder, there's no guarantee of a fit in your suit (♠), you need to consider whether you'd like to play 3 ♠ opposite a small stiff or doubleton. With the poor quality of the ♠ suit and suggested misfit with responder's 3 ♥ bid, I'd pass.

 

BTW, I'd initially rebid 2 ♠ over 1 NT rather than 2 ♦. Although you have a 5 loser hand, it's still only 13 HCP. The major feature of the hand -- the ♠ suit is somewhat poor.