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lamford

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IMPs

 

Your style is to open all 11-counts with a 5-card suit. a 1NT rebid would be any 17+; your 2C showed 11-16 and could have been a three-card suit if 2-5-3-3. Partner could have used fourth suit then 3H or 4H with a slam-try, so he is limited. Do you move, and if so how?

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Pass, also.

 

Partner has other bids than 4 available to keep the conversation open and explore for a potential slam. Your hand didn't get any better when partner bid . You also know partner may have some wasted values in .

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Pass, also.

 

Partner has other bids than 4 available to keep the conversation open and explore for a potential slam. Your hand didn't get any better when partner bid . You also know partner may have some wasted values in .

Pass here for the same reasons.

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I am convinced by all your arguments, although slam was cold on this occasion, which indicates partner should have gone more slowly. I would be worried that partner could easily be Axxx Qxx Kx Axxx, which he was, when Six Clubs and Six Hearts will be good. If partner is 13-14 with three hearts (as you could be an 11-count 2-5-3-3 and he could invite in hearts as well), then slam is around 44%, with game going off 2% of the time, and ten tricks being the limit a further 11% of the time.

 

[if partner has a 14-count, then you would be 55% for slam.]

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Lamford "IMPs. Your style is to open all 11-counts with a 5-card suit. a 1NT rebid would be any 17+; your 2C showed 11-16 and could have been a three-card suits if 2-5-3-3. Partner could have used fourth suit then 3H or 4H with a slam-try, so he is limited. Do you move, and if so how?"

 

Agree with others. I rank

1. Pass = NAT. No other sensible call. Too high to explore effectively...

2. 5 = S/T. But if partner has extra values they may be wasted unless outside s.

3. 5 = CUE. But IMO it should be a 1st round control. Also it tells opponents to lead a .

[/hv]

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When you want to reach these kind of thin slam, the balanced one must need to temporize the bidding, delay the support, and show a BAL FG hand first (e.g. 1 - 2), so that he has a chance to listen to partner shape, in case there is a perfect fit. This is the balanced hand principle. Of course you have a tougher time when you have unbalanced vs unbalanced.

 

When the balanced hand refuse to probe for slam, say want to conceal the hand as much as possible, then his shapely partner is never safe to bid above the game level on his own, as mentioned by other posters.

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If partner is 13-14 with three hearts (as you could be an 11-count 2-5-3-3 and he could invite in hearts as well), then slam is around 44%, with game going off 2% of the time, and ten tricks being the limit a further 11% of the time.

So 87% making 5+ tricks. Better than I thought. Maybe this bidding was not so discouraging as I thought.

 

no spade wastage (the ace isn't wasted). no way to identify that.

Perhaps there should be. This is a not a rare dilemma with shortage. Has anyone invented a sort of wastage asking bid?

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You might consider looking up some of Fred's old posts on the subject Paul. His suggestion was to play a 2 response as your GF raise and 2NT to be natural and game forcing. That would allow your real hand to bid 2NT followed by 3, meaning that the sequence genuinely emphasises the spades. In this way you can give partner a better indication of your hand. There are of course other solutions around too but perhaps the real point is to note that this DGR sequence is probably best defined to be a hand with support and a good side suit and to find an alternative auction for a balanced hand with 3 card support.
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Your style is to open all 11-counts with a 5-card suit. a 1NT rebid would be any 17+; your 2C showed 11-16 and could have been a three-card suit if 2-5-3-3. Partner could have used fourth suit then 3H or 4H with a slam-try, so he is limited. Do you move, and if so how?

Apparently your style involves weak nt combined with not opening a weak nt with a 5cM. The problem presented in the OP seems to be one of several problems created when Opener cannot show a balanced hand by rebidding 1nt (like playing in 1nt).

 

You might consider looking up some of Fred's old posts on the subject Paul. His suggestion was to play a 2 response as your GF raise and 2NT to be natural and game forcing.............

 

Zel's recommendations are probably a necessary tweak to your response structure to fix the given situation. But, the style has other features which IMO can't be fixed.

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[hv=pc=n&w=shakj87dq843ckq75&d=w&v=0&b=8&a=1hp1sp2c(can%20be%203)p4hp]133|200[/hv]

IMPs

 

Your style is to open all 11-counts with a 5-card suit. a 1NT rebid would be any 17+; your 2C showed 11-16 and could have been a three-card suit if 2-5-3-3. Partner could have used fourth suit then 3H or 4H with a slam-try, so he is limited. Do you move, and if so how?

 

Your comments convinced me to pass which I would always do with a regular partner.

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I am convinced by all your arguments, although slam was cold on this occasion, which indicates partner should have gone more slowly. I would be worried that partner could easily be Axxx Qxx Kx Axxx, which he was, when Six Clubs and Six Hearts will be good. If partner is 13-14 with three hearts (as you could be an 11-count 2-5-3-3 and he could invite in hearts as well), then slam is around 44%, with game going off 2% of the time, and ten tricks being the limit a further 11% of the time.

 

[if partner has a 14-count, then you would be 55% for slam.]

That hand has 5 controls. Don't jump to 4 with 5 controls.

Points are secondary. Controls are more critical to slams.

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Your comments convinced me to pass which I would always do with a regular partner.

Yes. It would seem that even with the given structure, a regular partner would have everything worthwhile concentrated in Spades and Hearts with no 1st or 2nd round control in the minors.

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When you want to reach these kind of thin slam, the balanced one must need to temporize the bidding, delay the support, and show a BAL FG hand first (e.g. 1 - 2), so that he has a chance to listen to partner shape, in case there is a perfect fit. This is the balanced hand principle. Of course you have a tougher time when you have unbalanced vs unbalanced.

 

When the balanced hand refuse to probe for slam, say want to conceal the hand as much as possible, then his shapely partner is never safe to bid above the game level on his own, as mentioned by other posters.

 

Are you suggesting that a 2 response show natural vlubs or a balanced GF? It seems to me that this would require a lot of artificial followups unless you decided that the bid was GF even it it was just natural clubs. But perhaps I am overstating the difficulties?

 

You might consider looking up some of Fred's old posts on the subject Paul. His suggestion was to play a 2 response as your GF raise and 2NT to be natural and game forcing. That would allow your real hand to bid 2NT followed by 3, meaning that the sequence genuinely emphasises the spades. In this way you can give partner a better indication of your hand. There are of course other solutions around too but perhaps the real point is to note that this DGR sequence is probably best defined to be a hand with support and a good side suit and to find an alternative auction for a balanced hand with 3 card support.

 

I am not sure, but I am guessing that Lamford and his partner were using 2 as a GF raise and 2NT as a spade jump shift. Is there a way to show these three hand-types, or is it best to just ignore the JS since it never comes up?

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I am not sure, but I am guessing that Lamford and his partner were using 2 as a GF raise and 2NT as a spade jump shift. Is there a way to show these three hand-types, or is it best to just ignore the JS since it never comes up?

I would not like to speak for Fred but I believe he does not use a GF spade response after a 1 opening but something along the lines of:

 

1 = nat, F1

1NT = semi-forcing

2m = nat, GF

2 = constructive

2 = GF raise with 4+ hearts

2NT = 12+-15

3 = weak raise with 4+ hearts

3 = limit raise or balanced GF with 4+ hearts

3 = mixed raise with 4+ hearts

3 = splinter in any suit

3NT = maxi-splinter with spade shortage

4m = maxi-splinters

 

Hopefully he will see this and correct me if any of it is wrong (or outdated).

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I would not like to speak for Fred but I believe he does not use a GF spade response after a 1 opening but something along the lines of:

 

1 = nat, F1

1NT = semi-forcing

2m = nat, GF

2 = constructive

2 = GF raise with 4+ hearts

2NT = 12+-15

3 = weak raise with 4+ hearts

3 = limit raise or balanced GF with 4+ hearts

3 = mixed raise with 4+ hearts

3 = splinter in any suit

3NT = maxi-splinter with spade shortage

4m = maxi-splinters

 

Hopefully he will see this and correct me if any of it is wrong (or outdated).

 

Not sure if she meant this but some good players play 2 GF, not 1 in the auction

 

1--1

2--2 (they put all 6 card spade hands that are below invitation in direct 2 sp respond)

 

But our OP is 2cl rebid by opener so....idk.

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Are you suggesting that a 2 response show natural vlubs or a balanced GF? It seems to me that this would require a lot of artificial followups unless you decided that the bid was GF even it it was just natural clubs. But perhaps I am overstating the difficulties?

 

I think now 1M - 2 is becoming more popular as (INV+?) or BAL FG. Ambra should be an example of introducing this over 10 years ago.

 

Just my personal opinion:

I think even 4 BAL FG hand can also put in 1 - 2, and 1 - 1 kept as 4+ non-FG or 5+ unBAL FG.

I even think that 5m332, or even 5OM332 FG can also put in 1M - 2. Of course in those case finding back the 5-3 fit could be difficult.

A even more radical thinking is that 4+M SUPP FG hand should also put inside, in order to listen to partner's (partial) shape (with some relay). The Jacoby 2NT can also be free up as other INV- raises.

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So 87% making 5+ tricks. Better than I thought. Maybe this bidding was not so discouraging as I thought.

 

 

Perhaps there should be. This is a not a rare dilemma with shortage. Has anyone invented a sort of wastage asking bid?

We play that 3S (or 3NT over spade) is a short-suit slam try where available, and partner bids the lowest suit he will accept. This is one reason why I should have gone more slowly, although 7 of the 8 tables missed this slam. But it was Wales, who can only play football ...

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I would not like to speak for Fred but I believe he does not use a GF spade response after a 1 opening but something along the lines of:

 

1 = nat, F1

1NT = semi-forcing

2m = nat, GF

2 = constructive

2 = GF raise with 4+ hearts

2NT = 12+-15

3 = weak raise with 4+ hearts

3 = limit raise or balanced GF with 4+ hearts

3 = mixed raise with 4+ hearts

3 = splinter in any suit

3NT = maxi-splinter with spade shortage

4m = maxi-splinters

 

Hopefully he will see this and correct me if any of it is wrong (or outdated).

Thanks Zel. Have printed out to discuss with my regular partners. We currently play 2C as INV+, NAT, BAL or 2-3 card raise. Otherwise 2/1 FG. Although we do play other parts of that.

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I am not sure, but I am guessing that Lamford and his partner were using 2 as a GF raise and 2NT as a spade jump shift. Is there a way to show these three hand-types, or is it best to just ignore the JS since it never comes up?

We play 1H-2S as weak, so have to use 2NT as the FG raise. We could dispense with that possibly.

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I am convinced by all your arguments, although slam was cold on this occasion, which indicates partner should have gone more slowly. I would be worried that partner could easily be Axxx Qxx Kx Axxx, which he was, when Six Clubs and Six Hearts will be good. If partner is 13-14 with three hearts (as you could be an 11-count 2-5-3-3 and he could invite in hearts as well), then slam is around 44%, with game going off 2% of the time, and ten tricks being the limit a further 11% of the time.

 

[if partner has a 14-count, then you would be 55% for slam.]

1 is not a good response to 1.

2 making immediately clear that you have a stronger hand is far superior even if you do not play this response as game forcing.

Why would anyone want to discourage partner with this hand escapes me.

And if 4 is neither discouraging nor specific it is a bad system.

Surely 2 instead of 4 followed by a heart raise is more appropriate.

 

Rainer Herrmann

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