elwood913 Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 MP's, 2/1, none vul. You deal and hold:[hv=pc=n&n=s94ht4dkj76caqj95]133|100[/hv] Do you open? If so,What do you open? and,What do you rebid over 1M response? If it's close, what small change would suggest a different action? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Phil Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 In my experience opening this hand type isn't a big loser or winner, but if your style is to do either, stick with it. I open. Hopefully it doesn't allow my opponents into the auction where otherwise they wouldn't bid, but that's only one scenario. My style is to rebid 1N after opening of 1C. I do not like a 1D opening. I have a former partner that would rebid 2C. In a Best Hand robodoop I have had good results passing a hand like this. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kaitlyn S Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 In my experience opening this hand type isn't a big loser or winner, but if your style is to do either, stick with it. I agree. My personal preference is to pass on these hands because, despite meeting the rule of 20 and 2, this hand presents a rebid problem; and I'd like to have a better stopper in the unbid major to rebid 1NT. However, the conditions are very important here. Matchpoints with nobody vulnerable there is a lot to be said for being the side who gives up 50's instead of making a part score, or collects a part score instead of 50's. So, only because of the conditions, I would open 1C and rebid 2C. The fact that I am supposed to have six will be irrelevant if partner competes to 3C and we give up 100 instead of 110. Hopefully if partner bids a game, she will appreciate the 20+2 7-loser hand :D 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
MrAce Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 I'd pass. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ggwhiz Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 I'm a passer but give me the ♦10 or 3-1 in the majors AND favorable and I'm in. Equal or unfavorable I would like both. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
neilkaz Posted October 7, 2016 Report Share Posted October 7, 2016 My style is to rebid 1N after opening of 1C. I do not like a 1D opening. I have a former partner that would rebid 2C. Any PD of mine that would insist to open the 4-5m hand 1D and rebid 1C would quickly become a former PD of mine as well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aawk Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 I would pass with 11 HCP and both minors. With a 5 card major i would open. But what to do if you got a slightly stronger hand ? After 1♣-1♥/♠-1nt the opponents will most likely start the unbid major and a possible fit in a minor is lost. In MP play a risk you can take but in IMP play not recommended. After 1♣-1♥/♠-2♣ you rebid shows a 6+ card ♣ when you have in fact a 5 card. If you agree that a rebid is standerd with a 5+ card it is harder to reach 3nt based on ♣ being you trick source. After 1♦-1♥/♠-2♣ you show 9+ cards from your holdings (in this case 5-4 or 4-5 in ♣/♦) giving your partner 2 places to land. If you choose this option agree with your partner to pick his best minor if he wants to play 2♣ or 2♦. This means holding 2-3 in the minors you pick the 3 card to play. So agree with your partner what to do with a xx45 pattern with no rebid of 1nt possible. I would open 1♦ giving you to best option to find a fit in a minor in a non forcing situation even if this means you have to play in a 4-3 fit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
msjennifer Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 No problem.1D ( yes as per theory of convenient rebid) and follow with an easy 2C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
msjennifer Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 Even Precision system players will open 1D and rebid 2C. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 Even Precision system players will open 1D and rebid 2C. Well they have no option, 1♦ or 2♣ obviously you open 1♦ This is one place a weak NT works well, but if I was 3-1 in the other suits I'd always open 1♣ and rebid 2♣. We don't normally bypass diamonds to bid a major however in response, if you do then I can see that opening 1♦ is better. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 [hv=pc=n&n=s94ht4dkj76caqj95]133|100| elwood913 asks "MP's, 2/1, none vul. You deal and hold:Do you open? If so, What do you open? and, What do you rebid over 1M response? If it's close, what small change would suggest a different action?"I rank1. Pass = NAT. Timid. Close decision. IMO you should open if opponents were vulnerable.2. 1♣ = NAT, Longest and strongest (for lead). Over 1♥ reply, rebid 2♣. Over 1♠, 1N might be better.3. 1♦ = Canapé. Some prefer this to 1♣. [/hv] Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
kenberg Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 The one thing that I absolutely would not do is open this 1D. If 1D-1M-2C can be on 5/4 either way, it makes for enormous problems later on. Maybe partner has a bad hand and wants to get out at the 2 level. How? Of maybe he has a good hand. If it is clear to him that we should play in NT whatever my minor suit holding then we will survive, but there will be frequent times when he actually cares what I have. This is not just theory, I was taught to open hands such as this with 1D, I did so and I often regretted it. So I do not do it. Not even with a strong four card diamond suit and a weak five card club suit. With the 2=2=4=5 hands minimum openers, holding a strong five card club suit and little in the majors, I open 1C and rebid 2C. Otherwise I open 1C and I rebid 1NT, hoping for the best. Neither option is great. Here the club suit is strong and the majors are weak, so the 2C rebid is my choice, BUT that is only IF I would open it. This one I pass. It's close, I would not have a cow [old expression from childhood] if partner opened it, but I pass. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Winstonm Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 I'd pass.I pass because my partner and I discussed opening bids and this does not fit our agreements. Many (maybe most nowadays) winning players open such hands. Add a K of spades and I would open 1C and rebid 2C, not liking it but preferring that to playing a 4-2 diamond fit. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Manastorm Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 I open 1♣ and repid 1NT, however I am not surprised, if 2♣ is a winner. We tend to have one of the major suits wide open, which often leads to 90 or -50. 2♣ making is going to cover 90, sometimes opponents let us play 2♣ when we are in a low scoring contract, but would rather balance over 1NT. I am not too worried that opponents outbid us easily, because 3♣ seems to be a nice spot versus a random balanced hand. If I repid clubs, I am probably done whatever happens next. However after 1NT I can still balance with 3♣ or 2NT, if opponents try 2M. I don't think it is a good idea to open this hand and give up when opponents find unsurprising 2M. I would more inclined to pass this hand, if I didn't have such a nice playing strength. I think minimum balanced should cause more worry, because there is very little to do, if opponents compete over us. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kaitlyn S Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 1. Pass = NAT. Timid. Close decision. IMO you should open if opponents were vulnerable.Interesting! I opened a hand that I would usually pass precisely because it was matchpoints, none vul - because I'd rather defend if I can get +100 instead of +90 but not +50 instead of +90. I tried to imagine why you would say you would open if the opponents were vulnerable (I am assuming you would open 1C.) If it were IMPs, there would be more incentive to make it more difficult to bid their vulnerable game, but this is matchpoints so keeping them from bidding game has roughly the same value whether they are vul. or not. While competitive auctions are less accurate than constructive auctions, I can see that opening might make their hand evaluation better. For example: [hv=pc=n&w=saj863hk8dq2c8762&e=sqt72ha964da853c3&d=n&v=e&b=9&a=1cd1h4sppp]266|200[/hv] If you don't open, the opponents have little chance of reaching 4S, in fact, unless your partner opens a 5-card weak two bid in third, the deal will likely be passed out. However, when you open 1C, unless the opponents commit those awful minimum 4-4-2-3 or 4-3-3-3 doubles routinely, West knows he has a great hand on the auction. While I concede that this was constructed, there are many times where one of the opponents tries for game and the knowledge you have clubs will help them evaluate their hands better. Another reason I thought of was a possible sacrifice, but unless you plan to bid again, partner won't know you have more than 3 clubs (or if you are playing that abomination "short club" or "5542", 2 clubs) so this isn't that likely. If you think you'll get the best lead against their major suit contract, I'll grant you that, but again, in matchpoints, I don't think their vulnerability matters. (Edit: had two DK's in the hand :( ) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kaitlyn S Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 duplicate post Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kaitlyn S Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 Even Precision system players will open 1D and rebid 2C.When I played Precision, that auction showed 2+D and 5+C. However, it presented a problem when the auction went 1D (1S) P or Dbl (2S); now I have to bid 3C or ignore the clubs. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nullve Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 (edited) I'd open 1♣ and rebid 1N over both 1♣-(P)-1M-(P) and 1♣-(1M)-X-(P), but I won't cherrypick hands like Opener: 1) 94-T4-KJ76-AQJ952) 94-T4-KJ7-AQJ954 Responder: a) JTxxx-AQx-Qxxx-xb) JTxxx-AQxx-Qxx-xc) JTxxx-AQxx-Qx-xxd) KTxxx-AQx-Qxxx-xe) KTxxx-AQxx-Qxx-x to prove that it's a better strategy with 2245 than opening 1♣/♦ and then rebidding 2♣. Edited October 8, 2016 by nullve Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
drunnels Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 Open 1♣. 2 QTs, 7 losers, honors in long suits.I don't mind responding 1NT with a dbtn (or sometimes even a singleton) in P's suit, but I'd have to think about the lie of doing it with 2 dbtns. I don't see the problem with rebidding 2♣. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stefan_O Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 I would open 1C and rebid 2C. The fact that I am supposed to have six No, it's just per the standard system, that 2C shows either six or 4-5 with a side-suit you cannot bid. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Finch Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 I open 1C and show it as a balanced minimumI'd rather pass then open 1D and rebid 2CIf you force me to open 1C and rebid 2C I'd still rather pass, but it's closer. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Cyberyeti Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 If you don't open, the opponents have little chance of reaching 4S, in fact, unless your partner opens a 5-card weak two bid in third, the deal will likely be passed out. I would open a 4th seat 1♠ every day of the week. Rule of 15 compliant. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
fourdad Posted October 8, 2016 Report Share Posted October 8, 2016 Pass Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
SteveMoe Posted October 9, 2016 Report Share Posted October 9, 2016 When I played Precision, that auction showed 2+D and 5+C. However, it presented a problem when the auction went 1D (1S) P or Dbl (2S); now I have to bid 3C or ignore the clubs.We play rebidding 2♣ shows 9(+) cards in the minors either way. With 2 or 3=5 we make some other call. Even so, I would tend to pass in seats 1 and 2. Seat 3, well.. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rmnka447 Posted October 9, 2016 Report Share Posted October 9, 2016 The hand meets the Rule of 20. :D It does have 2 QT. So I'd open it 1 ♣. But over a 1 M response, I'm rebidding 2 ♣. Bidding 1 ♦ and rebidding 2 ♣ with such a strong ♣ suit misdescribes the hand. 2 ♣ limits the hand and avoids some potential pitfalls of a 1 NT rebid (NMF?) that may push you too high. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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