Responding 1NT, or not

[portia2]

What should E bid? Also does the fact that there were 3 passes before his partner opened 1♣ affect his bid? Thanks

 

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[rmnka447]

A simple raise to 2 ♣ seems right. If you had 4 ♥, you could make a negative double. But you don't. 1 NT promises a ♠ stopper but 1098 really isn't a stopper. So show what you have 4+ ♣ and values enough to raise.

[mycroft]

With a little more shape (say 2=3=4=4) I'd upgrade that into a maximum pass and bid 2♠, but (especially with only 4 clubs) I'll take the low road.

 

What's your opening 1NT in fourth, unfavourable? Because remember partner doesn't have that.

[neilkaz]

This would be a routine raise to 2♣ for me as well.

[portia2]

This would be a routine raise to 2♣ for me as well.

 

Partner may just have 2 clubs. Won't he assume I have minimum 5?

[Kaitlyn S]

Partner may just have 2 clubs. Won't he assume I have minimum 5?

That's why I don't like bidding 1C on 2. I think 2C is routine (even opening 1C on 2, partner is more likely to have 5 than 2 or 3.)

[wank]

responding 1nt would be pretty bad with nothing in their suit.

 

just pass (it's a 2 card club, hence i don't like 2c). if partner's got a lot of points or short spades he'll bid and you can show your hand so you won't miss game. if partner has neither, you'll probably be perfectly happy defending 1 spade.

 

as the opps are both passed hands, he'll know you can't have nothing.

[Phil]

Yup 2♧ but don't hate pass actually.

[Kaitlyn S]

I'm talking theory here without knowing West's hand.

 

You could bid 2C here and occasionally partner will be 4-4-3-2. I open 1D on those hands so I'm in the same boat with 2-3-3-5 and considering raising partner's diamonds after a 1S overcall which will only backfire when partner is 4-4-3-2.

 

If you pass, South may raise to 2S, and assuming they have a real fit, you know your partner has four clubs (else he would have opened 1D or 1H) and can compete to 3C.

 

However, if South makes a non-forcing 2H call passed back to you, partner could easily be 4-4-3-2 or a lot of holdings with three clubs on which you want to sell to 2H. When opener has 5C, you want to put him in the position to compete over 2H. Bidding 2C now, taking the small risk that partner is 4-4-3-2, puts your partner in an excellent position to compete.

 

2C could conceivably get you to 3NT, especially if partner thinks you have five. From his POV, there's a good chance of six club tricks and his S-AK and HA, or if you have to give up a club, you have other high cards which may produce another trick and stopper. Of course, with the C-AK and 9 points, you are accepting a game try. If partner bids 3C over pass and you don't play bar bids, you'll bid 3D leading to an easy 3NT. If South bids 2H, 3C is just competitive so partner will have to bid 2S or 2NT (whichever your agreement would allow with this hand), you'll still bid 3D, and 3NT is reached. I hope I'm not being too resulty here - I honestly think I would try for game after a 2C bid from partner with West.

[steve2005]

Nowhere does OP say opener can have 2♣.

Opening 1♣ on 4=4=3=2 is non-standard and would be indicated on CC if so.

OP also doesn't say if they open 1M with a 4-card major in 3/4 seat which would be another consideration suggesting probable club length.

Raising on 4♣ is fine, have too much to pass.

[TylerE]

Since no one else said it, I will:

 

You wouldn't have this problem if W had opened 1NT.

 

If ♠AKxx ♥Ax ♦Jx ♣ QJT9x is a routine 1NT opener, and I think for most thinking players it should be, ♠AKx ♥Ax ♦Jx ♣ QJT9xx is too.

[wank]

Nowhere does OP say opener can have 2♣.

 

 

look again

[wank]

Since no one else said it, I will:

 

You wouldn't have this problem if W had opened 1NT.

 

If ♠AKxx ♥Ax ♦Jx ♣ QJT9x is a routine 1NT opener, and I think for most thinking players it should be, ♠AKx ♥Ax ♦Jx ♣ QJT9xx is too.

 

i would open 1NT on this hand, but i wouldn't open it on the 4225 which you evidently consider more mainstream. the actual hand has no good rebid, being rather heavy for 2C. Your other hand has no rebid issues.

[Kaitlyn S]

i would open 1NT on this hand, but i wouldn't open it on the 4225 which you evidently consider more mainstream. the actual hand has no good rebid, being rather heavy for 2C. Your other hand has no rebid issues.

I have a different rebid for a hand with a decent six-card club suit too good to rebid 2C.

[Kaitlyn S]

Nowhere does OP say opener can have 2♣.

It was hiding :D

 

What should E bid? Also does the fact that there were 3 passes before his partner opened 1♣ affect his bid? Thanks

 

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Partner may just have 2 clubs. Won't he assume I have minimum 5?

 

However, Steve is right. This is a non-standard treatment and if somebody says they play "standard" they have three clubs when they open 1C. There are people that do open 4-4-3-2 with 1C (they have 5542 on their profile normally.) I think it's an awful system (since I'd rather have 3 trump than 2 if partner passes my opening bid, and those partners that think their "short club" is forcing are really espousing unsound bridge. I could construct some normal hand pairs where a "forcing short club" is a recipe for disaster.