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What's going on here?


kjpod

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It should be for takeout of 2 .

 

The opponent's auction indicates North has a hand where sitting for 1 NT was not OK and there wasn't a 2 level suit in which to escape. It should be weak and short in , typically something like Qxxx Jxxx xxxx x. Opener's hand is either a 4-3-3-3 hand with a 4 card minor or a minor oriented balanced hand with a 5 card minor suit or 4-4 in the minors.

 

Just bid 2 , your normal response to a T/O double.

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It really depends on your agreement about what a Double of 2C means. Standard is to play that as showing values and usually length in clubs. However, against weak 1NT openings (which many consider to include the 13 to 15 HCP range), many pairs play that a Double of 2C just shows values.

 

If you play that the Double shows clubs, I think it is clear that this Double is a takeout of diamonds with a pretty good hand and perhaps not particularly short in diamonds.

 

If you play that the Double shows general values in a good hand, then I think the Double must be a much more distributional takeout with shortness in diamonds and not necessarily a good hand.

 

In either case, though, my answer is the same. I would bid 2H, confident of playing in at least a 4-3 fit.

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This is a matter of agreement.

 

The normal meaning of double it take-out of diamonds (in which case I bid 2).

 

However, I have one partner who likes to play double here as penalty orientated (so I would pass playing with him).

 

After passing, what would you lead?

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Yes 2H. We might be in a 4-3 but LHO may be too weak to x us when it's right and it's far from clear we are in trouble here.

If partner is making a takeout double of diamonds (and I think he is), and I have D-Axx, it wouldn't even occur to me that we might be in trouble; I suspect that 2H is a great contract.
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After passing, what would you lead?

Ah, that's an interesting question. To pass, I would need an agreement that the double was intended for penalty, and since I have D-Axx, partner is doubling on speculation that the cards lie badly for declarer rather than on diamonds.

 

What would make partner think that? Usually passing a 2D response to Stayman indicates a bad hand with short clubs. Club values in partner's hand would be poorly placed for two reasons: they could be finessed, or they could be trumped. So I suspect partner has poor clubs.

 

Partner probably expects you to lead a trump so that your clubs won't get trumped. Surprise! You don't have much in clubs and know that defense won't work. On this lead, declarer will happily draw trump and run 4 or 5 club tricks. (Of course, they could be on a 4-2 diamond fit with declarer having strong clubs.) Instead I would try to get tricks in the other suits before they go off on clubs, so I would lead a heart.

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If partner is making a takeout double of diamonds (and I think he is), and I have D-Axx, it wouldn't even occur to me that we might be in trouble; I suspect that 2H is a great contract.

 

The reason why we might taken out is that LHO has 2-3 hearts and RHO has 3-4 hearts, even though partner should have 3-4 himself. Imagine partner with 4315 - 2H just won't be that much fun on a trump lead.

 

It makes no different what I bid here, but I'm not going to be glib and think I've found Nirvana.

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Thanks for all the replies.

 

At the table I bid 2 like everyone else in this thread, but now that I have some time to think of it, perhaps that was the wrong idea. The failure of the Garbage Stayman auction to find a major suit fit means the opponents may be in trouble. Ideally, East should be 4-4-5-0 for this auction, but what if East fudged and bid on 4-4-4-1, only to catch West with the dreaded 3-3-2-5 shape? Furthermore, if partner is intended for takeout -- takeout to what? East has shown length in every suit but clubs. And as one posted pointed out, if he had just clubs, he could have double 2, or he could be 3 later.

 

I will withhold the actual hands because the auction was aberrant in several ways, but I thought the abstract problem was of interest.

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