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what does this 'long suit' mean?please help!


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hi surelyours,

 

+ = minor suit, minor meaning 'lower'

 

+ = major suit, major meaning 'higher'

 

On the diagram, Rdbl could be xx xxx xx Q98xxx

or, x xx JTxxxxx x

 

'minor' also means 'small child' in English.

 

Hope this helps

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hi surelyours,

 

+ = minor suit, minor meaning 'lower'

 

+ = major suit, major meaning 'higher'

 

On the diagram, Rdbl could be xx xxx xx Q98xxx

or, x xx JTxxxxx x

 

'minor' also means 'small child' in English.

 

Hope this helps

 

I assume he is playing with GIB because this looks like a GIB alert. GIB does not run from NT DBL as you suggest, keeps transfers etc. Not the best way but I think they kept it this way for simplicity.

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"Long minor" here means that your partner has a natural 2 or 2 takeout, typically a 5-6 card suit and not very much general strength.

but how should I continue bidding with this hand? when I bidded 3c , he passed with a hand of 4 clubs and 6 diamonds.

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Partner is not expecting you to continue bidding. You have limited your hand with the 1NT opening, painting a well defined description of your hand. He has shown a weak hand. You should pass the 2 bid. Your partner may choose to compete if 2 is passed around to him - normally he would not do so, but with 6-4 in the minors he might ...
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Partner is not expecting you to continue bidding. You have limited your hand with the 1NT opening, painting a well defined description of your hand. He has shown a weak hand. You should pass the 2 bid. Your partner may choose to compete if 2 is passed around to him - normally he would not do so, but with 6-4 in the minors he might ...

Thank you! Tramticket

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but how should I continue bidding with this hand? when I bidded 3c , he passed with a hand of 4 clubs and 6 diamonds.

 

Do you want to bid again, surelyours? Partner could have a very poor hand and you run the risk of a big penalty when the opponents cannot make game. Pass the 2 bid is the best option, I feel

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You have 17 HCP. West's double shows 16-17 HCP (since robot duplicate tournaments are "best hand", West can't have more HCP than you). So there are at most 7 HCP distributed between North and East, and you should probably assume they're split about evenly. So North has about 3 HCP -- do you really want to be playing at the 3 level?

 

Before you make your 3 bid, you should hover over it to see what it means. I think you will see that it shows 5+ clubs, so the robot thought it was a 9-card fit. Why should it correct to 3? Once East bids, you're not in a pass-or-correct situation any more -- your bid shows a suit of your own.

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what do you suggest my following bidding MrACE? now I know he has long minors, but don't know which is longer?

 

He does not have long minors. He has only one long minor (5+). and he is weak.

 

I would pass. My hand is way too balanced. Make it 4-3 minors and a doubleton , then I may consider bidding 3 if that is pass or correct. As Barry said this may not be the case though.

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I may consider bidding 3 if that is pass or correct. As Barry said this may not be the case though.

I think the right way to play here is for 3 to show clubs with diamond tolerance and 2NT to show diamonds with club tolerance but GIB most likely has 3m natural and 2NT asking for the minor.

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I think that there SHOULD be a method for South to compete with support for both minors.

I think that 3C (or 2N if you wish) SHOULD show such a hand, and North should pull to 3D if that is his "long minor".

 

Whether South has a suitable hand for competing may be debatable. Personally I think that he has, but only subject to the above agreement and obviously not if GIB is programmed to pass without correcting.

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The "WRIGGLING" convention says it all.With a poor hand with 5+ suit the responder does not wish to play in 1NTx bids xx requesting ,or rather forcing, opener to bid 2C and if that is actually the responders suit he passes or corrects to D/H/S whichever is his suit.Since this is showing a very weak hand opener has to pass compulsorily.With a good hand with which,(when not playing this convention,)normally have redoubled ,or any 4333 hand even if poor ,PASSES.For example,holding 8+ HCP and balanced hand he does not xx but passes.If openers RHO passes the opener if he does not wish to play in 1NTx redoubles asking responder to pass with 8 or more and bid the 4card suit with less HCP. After1NTx with a poor hand and having no long suit but having two four carder suits ,bids the lower ranking suit e.g.with xx,Jxxx,xxx,xxxx he bids 2C.!and opener passes with at least three cards in clubs and else bids 2D without them.In the e.g.hand respnder bids 2H, his other 4 card suit and opener passes since he must possess at least three cards in H as he has only 2 cards in clubs.The general idea of the convention is "To Wriggle" out.There are less chances now that opponents will double a 2 level suit contract (as there can be even a 4-4 fit ).And when the long suit approach has been used there can be even 5-3 or better fit,Anyhow they may find it difficult to x that contract.Somehow,we may escape playing in 1NTx with a poor hand or even penalize opponents (when the 8+ hand passes and opener redoubles).It is advisable that only regular partnerships use this convention.

As regards what to do in the diagrammed example,it is advisable to pass since one knows nothing about partners hand.It may prove costly if any other competitive bid like 3C is thought of.

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You said that you bid 3C which responder passed holding only 4 Cards and he had 6 Diamond cards.I don't blame him as 3C was taken by your partner ,perhaps,as a 5 card suit and a dislike for diamonds.To show support for both minors you should bid ,if at all,2NT a bid which is easy to understand as no one will bid 2Nt when 1NT itself was doubled and more so when partner has shown a poor hand.He would then have easily bid 3 diamonds.You have solid winners and no wasted honors in both majors.Playing Wriggling,I ,in your position ,would certainly have bid 2NT with the given cards.Good Luck with wriggling.
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