Bit extra

[wank]

Jtxx

X

Kqtxx

Axx

 

1h from p

1s overcall then opps silent

1nt from you

2c from p

Your go....

[nullve]

Pass. (Yes, we might have slam.)

[ahydra]

Abstain. Why 1NT rather than 2D?

 

ahydra

[mike777]

I will try 3nt, pard was allowed to pass 1nt with a minimum I hope

 

fwiw 1nt was fine over 1s.

[The_Badger]

hi wank,

 

Even with a bit extra, I'm inclined to bid just 2♦. Partner will know you are 7-10 range for your 1NT. By bidding again - was 2♣ forcing in this sequence? Some might play it not - I believe you are showing extras. It all depends what your agreements are over opponent's overcalls, whether a 2♦ bid over their 1♠ overcall is a free bid (and a different sort of hand, of course.)

 

Mmmm...it'll be interesting to see other commentators interpretation...

 

A skinny game contract could be there, maybe not, 2♦ just allows more exploration, I feel.

[ggwhiz]

2♦. With those spots it should play well enough or better, if partner bids 2♥ we rate to be on a 6-1 fit instead of a 4-3 in clubs and the only downside if it's a misfit is playing 3 clubs on the moyse instead of 2.

 

Meanwhile partner may have some pretty decent hands with awkward shape (best case 1-5-3-4) and if they make a positive move over 2♦ I have a max in context of the 1nt call.

[alok c]

3NT.

[Kaitlyn S]

2C shows real clubs here as partner could have passed 1NT, so 2D has a very real chance of being played opposite a singleton.

 

If you're going to play partner for having some diamonds anyway, I would prefer 2NT which seems about right on values. I think partner can bid 2C with 17 here so I don't like pass. 3NT should have play opposite most accepting hands that have either the DA or a spade honor.

 

If I had responded 1NT forcing (playing 2/1GF and Flannery so 1S shows 5), and partner bid 2C, 2NT seems obvious. Why should the overcall change that? 3NT is a great contract opposite x, Axxxx, Axx, KQxx and it's not clear that partner will even accept with that but I'll take my +150 in matchpoints and let those who pass 2C or bid 2D try to beat that score.

[Kaitlyn S]

3NT.

That I can't see. If partner has a typical minimum like xx, AKxxx, Jx, KJxx, we are losing 4 spades and the DA. Overcallers that have S-AKQxx without the DA are allowed to duck at trick 1 and their partners' top of a doubleton lead should indicate that play.

[alok c]

That I can't see. If partner has a typical minimum like xx, AKxxx, Jx, KJxx, we are losing 4 spades and the DA. Overcallers that have S-AKQxx without the DA are allowed to duck at trick 1 and their partners' top of a doubleton lead should indicate that play.

If partner has a typical minimum hand as cited,Imo he would'nt have ventured over 1NT knowing the limitation of the responder.

[Hyperon]

2NT

[kenberg]

i seem to be alone on this, but I would bid 3C.

 

Partner, for whatever his reason, declined to leave me in NT. With a decent hand and only one of my highs in spades, I have no reason to disagree with him. I am not sure just where this is going, but I imagine we can make 3C. MyNT call limited my hand, so partner should ot expect much more. No doubt he would like it if I had a fourth club, but Axx may well be enough.

[Cyberyeti]

delete, misread auction as starting with 1♣

 

Also I'd have started with 2♦

[kenberg]

Ah. I am now deleting my response to the above response, now deleted. :)

[Phil]

With this texture, I like 2D first. If I get a spade raise on my left I don't want partner to think there's too much wasted. I know I'll hear 2H and 2N now seems perfect.

 

1N isn't terrible and I don't hate it. I'm probably endplayed into 2N now. 2D just feels wrong (should be 6 i think) with the spade lead coming through and partner is likely short anyway.

[msjennifer]

I personally do not like the 1NT bid made earlier.Considering the total misfit in hearts,some may laugh ,playing negative dbl I would have made it over opponents 1S.And over partners 2C I will respond 2D.Since I have not bid 2D earlier and neither have

bid 2 H(doubleton support)or passed or raised clubs opener can plainly see my hand as 4153 with 10/11HCP and a fairly decent diamond suit.

[wank]

I preferred 1nt the previous round because i could pass 2h happily, whereas over 2d-2h i would be tempted to bid again

[Caitlynne]

I am bidding 2D. Though it is non-forcing, it is nevertheless unambiguously and unequivocally highly constructive and forward going. (2D cannot be a sign-off since you would have passed over 1S rather than bid 1NT with that kind of hand.)

 

Partner has pulled 1NT to show a second suit. That decision strongly suggests that partner has length in two suits and likely spade shortness. So, after bidding 1NT - which showed respectable yet limited values (e.g., 7/8 to 10 HCP) with some values in spades - I can't have a good six card suit worth bidding. So, if I now bid my own suit after partner claims a 2 suiter, this must be concentrated values. I might have 2 hearts or club support and, if partner would be excited by either, that implies some kind of modest support for diamonds. Which means my spade values - just the JTxx - are very desirable opposite shortness.

 

If partner bids 2H next, I will follow with 3C. This has to show only 3 card support ... if I had 4 card club support and a good hand, I could have cue bid 2S.

 

If partner bids 3C, I should pass.

 

But, if partner has diamond support, I should hear 2S or 3D, in which case the auction should be easy since all I need to do is show my club value. That is, I will bid 3C if partner comes to life with 2S or bid 4C if partner bids 3D.

[Cyberyeti]

I am bidding 2D. Though it is non-forcing, it is nevertheless unambiguously and unequivocally highly constructive and forward going. (2D cannot be a sign-off since you would have passed over 1S rather than bid 1NT with that kind of hand.)

 

Partner has pulled 1NT to show a second suit. That decision strongly suggests that partner has length in two suits and likely spade shortness. So, after bidding 1NT - which showed respectable yet limited values (e.g., 7/8 to 10 HCP) with some values in spades - I can't have a good six card suit worth bidding. So, if I now bid my own suit after partner claims a 2 suiter, this must be concentrated values. I might have 2 hearts or club support and, if partner would be excited by either, that implies some kind of modest support for diamonds. Which means my spade values - just the JTxx - are very desirable opposite shortness.

 

If partner bids 2H next, I will follow with 3C. This has to show only 3 card support ... if I had 4 card club support and a good hand, I could have cue bid 2S.

 

If partner bids 3C, I should pass.

 

But, if partner has diamond support, I should hear 2S or 3D, in which case the auction should be easy since all I need to do is show my club value. That is, I will bid 3C if partner comes to life with 2S or bid 4C if partner bids 3D.

 

Not sure I agree, would you not bid 1N then 2♦ with AQ10, x, J109xxxx, xx ?

[kenberg]

Not sure I agree, would you not bid 1N then 2♦ with AQ10, x, J109xxxx, xx ?

 

I think 2D is very likely to end the auction. Partner hears this auction and thinks: I heard his 1NT, I told him that a club contract is likely to be better, presumably showing a shapely hand with hearts and clubs, and he now says he prefers 2D. I have no reason to overrule this choice, I pass.

 

Maybe 2D is a good contract, maybe not, but I think that it will be the contract if I bid 2D.

 

I will be interested in hearing what actually happened here. Maybe I am nuts but I think a 2D call will be passed on almost any holding that is consistent with the bidding so far.

[Cyberyeti]

I think 2D is very likely to end the auction. Partner hears this auction and thinks: I heard his 1NT, I told him that a club contract is likely to be better, presumably showing a shapely hand with hearts and clubs, and he now says he prefers 2D. I have no reason to overrule this choice, I pass.

 

Maybe 2D is a good contract, maybe not, but I think that it will be the contract if I bid 2D.

 

I will be interested in hearing what actually happened here. Maybe I am nuts but I think a 2D call will be passed on almost any holding that is consistent with the bidding so far.

 

This is my point and why you don't do it on the original hand

[miamijd]

I think 2D is very likely to end the auction. Partner hears this auction and thinks: I heard his 1NT, I told him that a club contract is likely to be better, presumably showing a shapely hand with hearts and clubs, and he now says he prefers 2D. I have no reason to overrule this choice, I pass.

 

Maybe 2D is a good contract, maybe not, but I think that it will be the contract if I bid 2D.

 

I will be interested in hearing what actually happened here. Maybe I am nuts but I think a 2D call will be passed on almost any holding that is consistent with the bidding so far.

 

I don't care for the 1NT bid on Round 1 at all. It's a decided underbid, and underbidding at your first turn very often leaves you badly placed later on. It's generally better to be slightly aggressive on your first call then to make a slight underbid, because it's easier to slow down the auction later than it is to catch up. Either 2D or 2NT on Round 1 is a better call; they leave you much better placed later on in the auction.

 

At this point, it's highly likely that partner has 1-2 diamonds. He has at least 5H, at least 4C, and very likely 2S (if LHO had 3-card support, he might have raised; if RHO had a decent hand with a six-bagger, he might have bid 2S at some point). Sure, he could be specifically 1534, but the odds are very much against it.

 

Having decided this hand wasn't worth a 2D or 2NT bid on Round 1, you shouldn't try to catch up now. Just pass and take your plus score. If your side doesn't have a game, you'll probably get a good result.

[zillahandp]

2d first time and then least problem , 1nt just causes issues.

[kenberg]

Perhaps I would have bid 2D on the first round. It's close, and I can't be sure. But I think saying 2D eliminates all problems is a step too far. Suppose it starts 1H-(1S)-2D-P. Partner is going to bid again, he must. Maybe 2H. Phil addresses this and says he then bids 2NT. Fair enough, but on this auction partner is far more likely to raise 2NT to 3NT than if I begin with 1MT over 1S and then rebid 2NT over 2C. Do I want to encourage this? I have a spade stop but after the spade lead I had also better have nine tricks on top. Maybe I do.

 

I am not quarreling with 2D, I might well have done it. But I don't think it is clear cut and I understand wank's reason for not choosing it.

[ggwhiz]

I am not quarreling with 2D, I might well have done it. But I don't think it is clear cut and I understand wank's reason for not choosing it.

 

Me too. 2♦ is unlimited and forcing as opposed to getting there via a limited 1nt first, flawed (I try to avoid the bid with a stiff) but economical.