HeartA Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 Your lho opened 1♠ and you pd dbled. The bidding went:(1S)-x-(P)-2C(P)-2S-(P)-2N(P)-3S(!)-(P)-? Can you construct a hand that justifies the second cue-bid (3S) by dbler (your pd) after you bid 2C and 2N? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
flytoox Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 It should show a hand with club fit and spade control, and slam interest. I guess pd is looking for slam but consulting your opinion. After all, 2C guaranteed nothing and 2N promised only a stopper. How about A,AKQx,QJT,AKTxx? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
awm Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 I prefer to play the first cuebid as showing "a good hand, unsure of the proper strain." Certainly a stopper-ask is the most likely interpretation over partner's minor suit bid. As for the second cue, it suggests to me more of the same. Perhaps doubler holds: [hv=s=sxhakxxdakqjxcaqx]133|100|[/hv] Opposite the spade ace and king-fifth of clubs, a grand slam will be pretty likely. On the other hand, if responder has a slow spade stopper and a weak club suit, 3NT could be the best spot, and if responder has the spade ace but weak clubs then it's possible that 6♦ will be ideal. I'd interpret this second cue as an ask for: (1) Holding a non-ace spade stopper (for example Kxx, QJx) bid 3NT.(2) Holding the spade ace (or a dubious stopper like JTxx) with good clubs, bid 4♣ to set clubs and look for slam.(3) Holding a decent hand with four or five BAD clubs and the spade ace, try another strain for slam. Surely if opener wants to look for a slam in clubs, he can just bid clubs. In this auction (after the cuebid and 2NT rebid) 3♣ has to be forcing. And an initial 4♣ raise should also be forcing (why bypass 3NT to invite when 3♣ and 2♠ are free bids). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ritong Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 any mega ♣ fit :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
ochinko Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 0=4=5=4 and 17+ HCP seems to justify partner's bidding. Partner's weakest possible hand would be something like: -AKxxAKxxxKxxx After doubling, then cue-bidding twice I'd expect a sure spades void. Petko Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chamaco Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 three-suiter short in spades, about 20+ with good controls nothing wasted. Clubs is pretty much agreed now, after his 2nd cue, probably doubler will ask keycards for clubs with any method you have agreed upon. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 -AKxxAKxxxKxxx Seems like over 2C he should jump to 3S holding this hand Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 12, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 Have you guys considered the possibility that pd has almost nothing (maybe a little in ♠) and 3♣s only? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 Any hand with void or stiff spade and great club support would have been 3♠, not 2♠. Any great hand fitting hand without spade support would have been cue-bid followed by a raise, which should be forcing. So I think we can eliminate spade shortness with club support or spade legnth with club support. Partner could have done something creative like bid a new suit after the cue-bid with at GOSH (good-one-suited-hand), so we can eliminate that. So 3♠ by default is one of three meanings. Figure out your partner to figure out which one it is....1 - I have really good spade suit, lho psyched and I was not strong willed enough to pass 1♠2 - I have a very good hand, and maybe your 2NT was lebenhshol weak, maybe it was real stopper, I want you tbid 3NT with real stopper3 - I have a very GOOD red two suiter, so good in fact, I didn't want to use michaels to start off with for some odd reason and then show stregthI think with most partners of normal ability I would eliminate #1 as a choice, but with some players I would think this is the best bet. I would also eliminate #2, unless I thought 2NT was in fact some good/bad thing to show a poor 2♣ bid, but then I would know what I have (not shown). #3 is a real possibility, although I play michaels can be very strong indeed. So this would not be an auction I would typically use to show this hand. So I guess partner is something like (to be wildly speculative)... voidAKxxxxxxAQJxxxx He could be stronger in hcp, of course, and he could have less shape. But he wants you to pick between his suits. Now you see why I end up in the soup all the time, partner never has what I think he should have for his choice of sequences... :-) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
whereagles Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 I really doubt I'll ever see a hand like that.. My guess is pard has some sort of strong 3-suiter in the 18-20 region. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
inquiry Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 I really doubt I'll ever see a hand like that.. My guess is pard has some sort of strong 3-suiter in the 18-20 region. Shall I run Bridgebrowser? Like I said it doesn't have to be 6-6.. 5-5 is fine... The thing is, parnter doesn't want to bid a red suit as it would be a strong one-suiter, and to show the second suit, he would have to carry beyond 3NT (assuming you bid that). He could easily be... xAKJxxKQJTxAx For instance, it depends a bit on what you have for 2C and 2NT (seeing your hand, you could construct such a hand for your partner). But if he was 18-20 short is spades, with fit, as your comment suggest, 3♠ over 2♣ would show that quite nicely AT A MINIMUM. No need for two ways to say the same thing. And what you do need is a way to say, HAND TOO GOOD for micheales cue-bid (I am not sure there is such a thing...., but this is what I would take this bid to mean). Alternatively, if partenr now shows support (after this 3♠ bid), I would take it as three card support, with a great diamond suit of his own... and spade shortage.. but that requires yet another bid to determine. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 12, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 So far, ben's analysis is the best. We know opps and they don't psych. Secondly, we didn't discuss lebensohl in such a sequence. So, as ben said, #1 and #2 are eliminated. By the way, it was team match and NV to NV. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 i'd be very surprised if partner didn't have either a void or the stiff ace of spades here... i can't see any possibility of his spade bids showing spades else he'd have passed the first time... i think ben's construction is likely, with the stiff ace (or the void) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 voidAKxxxxxxAQJxxxx If my partner made a t/o X with this hand i would suggest he quit bridge. If he proceeded to cuebid twice I would suggest he take up therapy because he is demented. Making a t/o X with a hand like this is just silly. As for the other example of a red 2 suiter: xAKJxxKQJTxAx that looks like a textbook michaels cuebid. And if for some reason I Xed 2H over 2C seems easy enough. I know it's strange but for some reason with hearts and diamonds i would bid michaels. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 12, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 Justin, I completely agree with you. In my opinion, there is NO such hand that justifies the 2nd cue-bid. I think pd's 2♣ and then 2NT were telling a very weak hand, not enough to bid 1NT at first turn, and was unable to bid 3NT at 2nd turn, a choice with 6-7 hcp or so. And surely he has at most 4-card of ♣s. With the hand given by Hongjun, 3NT after pd's 2NT should be the right bid. 3N (or 3♦?) after pd's 2NT would be my choice, with awm's hand. With a huge hand of mega ♣ fit, 4♣ after 2NT should be good. While with the hand given by ochinko, I don't think it is strong enough to cue-bid even once. Even if you want to cue-bid once, 3♣ after 2NT should be sufficient. As the first hand given by Ben, dbl 1♠ is not good (if pd converts it to penalty?). But if you didn't find a good bid at first turn and decided to dbl 1♠, 2♠ after 2♣ is OK. After pd's 2NT, I would bid 4♥ directly. For the second hand, I would bid 2♠ (michaels) as Justin suggested. Since I couldn't construct a hand that justifies the 2nd cue-bid and I don't really trust my pd's bid (why would I partner with her? that's another story), I PASSED 3♠. It turned out that her hand was 12-count of 1444 (opener had 15 with 5134 and her pd 9 hcp of 2542). The good news is, it was not dbled and we got -300 only. The bad news is, our teammates didn't make 3NT (-1). Another good news is, our opps were blaming each other for not doubling :). Finally, my hand was, ♠J7xxx, ♥6xx, ♦xx, ♣K9x. My hand took two trick with CK and a ruff of ♦, while my pd's hand took one trick only (♦A). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted April 12, 2005 Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 well I don't agree with passing a cuebid just because youre not sure what partner is doing :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 12, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 12, 2005 well I don't agree with passing a cuebid just because youre not sure what partner is doing :) If you were my pd, I would not pass. I knew it would go to nowhere. If 3♠ were not dbled, it would not be a big loss. If 3♠ got dbled, let my pd bid whatever she would. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 13, 2005 Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 "Justin,I completely agree with you. In my opinion, there is NO such hand that justifies the 2nd cue-bid. " Hmm, wasn't there a James Bond film titled "Never Say Never Again". Talk of deja vu, this hand cropped up in an insignificant event yesterday. (1C) X (P) 1D(P) 2C (P) 2D(P) 3C (P) 3NT The hands wereAKxAKQJxxAxxx xxxxJxxxxJTxx Pd held the strong hand ; he bid it well. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 13, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 Ron, Did you see the difference of the sequences? The one you gave, dbler's pd rebid 2♦, while in mine, dbler's pd (me) bid 2NT at 2nd turn. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 13, 2005 Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 I did, and I did not say the sequences were the same. Your 2NT bid does not 100% guarantee a stopper, Txxx is possible if you have nothing else to bid, so your pd's 3S bid is asking whether the stopper is genuine, as Ben pointed out in one of his earlier posts. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 13, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 I noticed that some bid NT without stoppers (only care for shape). I have been against this idea. I would NOT (NEVER :)) bid 2NT with Txxx. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 13, 2005 Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 Ok, then here is your hand -Txxxxxxxxxxxx (1S) X (P) 2C(P) 2S (P) ? Now what? 3C?? Note that on this auction you have a stopper opposite a stiff honour, but pd may still need to know if it is a "genuine" stopper. - look at the hand my pd bid and change it a bit xxAKQJxxAKxAx He, (she), needs to know if you bid 2N on Txxx or Jxxx Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
HeartA Posted April 13, 2005 Author Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 Ok, then here is your hand -Txxxxxxxxxxxx (1S) X (P) 2C(P) 2S (P) ? Now what? 3C?? 3♣, no other choices. If my pd bid 3♠ again (asking for half stopper), I might consider 3NT. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
the hog Posted April 13, 2005 Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 Well I think you'd find most bid 2N as a scramble on that hand and not show pd that I have a real C suit. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jdulmage Posted April 13, 2005 Report Share Posted April 13, 2005 I find the 3♠ bid out of place, this better show a void in ♠, asking to start off with cuebidding first round controls, if any. If nothing, bid 3NT and I'll set the contract in it's rightful place. Cuebidding twice always confused me, because it really has no place in an auction except to try for a minor slam (in this case anyways). Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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