lamford Posted May 20, 2016 Report Share Posted May 20, 2016 I think a modicum of common sense has to be applied when reading the laws. If you allow any remote possibility, you can be aware of almost anything, so practically nothing is excluded by that requirement. Then if one of those remote possibilities arises, you throw the book at them.I agree. However, whenever somebody is careless or inattentive, they "could have been aware". "Dropping" the ace of trumps for example. Note that Law 23 does not require them to guess exactly how they would benefit, but that they might. If someone does something "inadvertent" then I would rule that they could not have been aware. Of course the TD has to decide whether it was inadvertent or whether it might not have been. All bids out of turn, leads out of turn and plays out of turn are not "inadvertent". The cheat careless person could think, "Oppo seem to know what they are doing. I will try to throw a spanner in the works." They could have been aware that the infraction could well work to their advantage. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted May 20, 2016 Report Share Posted May 20, 2016 I agree. However, whenever somebody is careless or inattentive, they "could have been aware". "Dropping" the ace of trumps for example. Note that Law 23 does not require them to guess exactly how they would benefit, but that they might. If someone does something "inadvertent" then I would rule that they could not have been aware. Of course the TD has to decide whether it was inadvertent or whether it might not have been. All bids out of turn, leads out of turn and plays out of turn are not "inadvertent". The cheat careless person could think, "Oppo seem to know what they are doing. I will try to throw a spanner in the works." They could have been aware that the infraction could well work to their advantage.If one accepted that every player who commits an infraction of carelessness or inattentiveness "could have been aware" (which, as you know, I do not), you still have to satisfy the second part of the condition, "that this could well damage the non-offending side" (my emphasis). You and I have disagreed before about how high a bar this sets, but I do not think that every infraction meets it, which would be necessary for your argument. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
blackshoe Posted May 20, 2016 Report Share Posted May 20, 2016 I'm with Gordon here. 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted May 21, 2016 Report Share Posted May 21, 2016 Interesting discussion about this on BLML at the moment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted May 21, 2016 Report Share Posted May 21, 2016 If one accepted that every player who commits an infraction of carelessness or inattentiveness "could have been aware" (which, as you know, I do not), you still have to satisfy the second part of the condition, "that this could well damage the non-offending side" (my emphasis). You and I have disagreed before about how high a bar this sets, but I do not think that every infraction meets it, which would be necessary for your argument.Indeed; I recall you thinking "could well" meant with a probability far more than I consider it. If you had said that "Leicester could well win the Premiership this season" in July 2015, I would have agreed; but then I would have agreed whichever team you named. "could have been aware" and "could well" are undefined in the Laws. We therefore fall back on dictionary definitions: "Could is used as the past tense of can when it means that someone had the ability to do something, or that something was possible" The adverb "well" in the second half has many meanings. I quite like the one given to it on a Laws site:"So, to summarize, adding "well" after "could" or "might" says that there is some reason why the probability is increased beyond normal statistical levels, and it implies that this probability has become large enough that the possibility of the event has become worth considering." Another thing about Law 23 is that it says:Whenever, in the opinion of the Director, an offender could have been aware at the time of his irregularity that this could well damage the non-offending side, he shall require the auction and play to continue (if not completed). This is more drivel from the WBFLC of course, as the TD requires the auction and play to continue whether or not he thought the offender "could have been aware". Law 23 should read, and you could "move the bar" if that was the majority opinion: LAW 23: AWARENESS OF POTENTIAL DAMAGEWhenever, in the opinion of the Director, there was any possibility that an offender was aware at the time of his irregularity that there was more than a remote chance that this would damage the non-offending side, when the play has been completed the Director awards an adjusted score if he considers the offending side has gained an advantage through the irregularity. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pran Posted May 21, 2016 Report Share Posted May 21, 2016 Law 23:Whenever, in the opinion of the Director, an offender could have been aware at the time of his irregularity that this could well damage the non-offending side, he shall require the auction and play to continue (if not completed).This expression contains 40 words.Your proposal for LAW 23:Whenever, in the opinion of the Director, there was any possibility that an offender was aware at the time of his irregularity that there was more than a remote chance that this would damage the non-offending side, when the play has been completed the Director awards an adjusted score if he considers the offending side has gained an advantage through the irregularity.This expression contains 63 words. I remember having seen somewhere a claim that increasing the number of words for the same meaning in an expression reduces the clarity of the expression by roughly the square of the increase. (Doubling the number of words reduces the clarity by a factor of four.) 40/63 squared is ca. 0,4. Can you agree that your proposal appears only about 40% as clear as the present law while essentially saying the same? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted May 21, 2016 Report Share Posted May 21, 2016 "Could is used as the past tense of can when it means that someone had the ability to do something, or that something was possible"Could in this contest is not the past tense but the conditional and means "would be able to". I would suggest a reasonable definition of could well is "is reasonably likely to" but that is more difficult to pin down precisely. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 This expression contains 40 words. This expression contains 63 words. I remember having seen somewhere a claim that increasing the number of words for the same meaning in an expression reduces the clarity of the expression by roughly the square of the increase. (Doubling the number of words reduces the clarity by a factor of four.) 40/63 squared is ca. 0,4. Can you agree that your proposal appears only about 40% as clear as the present law while essentially saying the same?The current Law contains 65 words:Whenever, in the opinion of the Director, an offender could have been aware at the time of his irregularity that this could well damage the non-offending side, he shall require the auction and play to continue (if not completed).When theplay has been completed the Director awards an adjusted score if he considers the offending side has gained an advantage through the irregularity. My version contained 63 words, so your point is invalid. But I am glad you agree that they say essentially the same thing. That was the intention. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 Could in this contest is not the past tense but the conditional and means "would be able to". I would suggest a reasonable definition of could well is "is reasonably likely to" but that is more difficult to pin down precisely."is reasonably likely to" is indeed the way Law 23 is interpreted. So one can gain from an infraction, even if was deliberate (usually impossible to prove), provided it was judged you could not have been aware how you would gain. If the Lawmakers intended that, they should have written:<snip> "is reasonably likely to have been aware" or "is reasonably likely to damage the non-offfending side", whichever they intended, rather than the absolute "could have been aware" and the less clear "could well damage". Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 "is reasonably likely to" is indeed the way Law 23 is interpreted. So one can gain from an infraction, even if was deliberate (usually impossible to prove), provided it was judged you could not have been aware how you would gain. If the Lawmakers intended that, they should have written:<snip> "is reasonably likely to have been aware" or "is reasonably likely to damage the non-offfending side", whichever they intended, rather than the absolute "could have been aware" and the less clear "could well damage".Is "is reasonably likely to damage" clearer than "could well damage"? Both are subjective measures and the latter is more concise. By my reading of the pure English, you are correct for the first clause and Gordon correct for the second. What is really meant by the lawmakers is something only they themselves can explain. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Vampyr Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 How about this: When there has been an irregularity, the Director shall require the auction and play to continue (if not completed).When the play has been completed the Director awards an adjusted score if he considers the offending side has gained an advantage through the irregularity. Isn't this what everyone wants? 1 Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Zelandakh Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 Isn't this what everyone wants?That is no good as it throws out the rub of the green results Stefanie. For example, you receive UI from partner that they are weaker than they might be and do the ethical thing by bidding a tight game. That turns out to be a lucky make requiring 3 or 4 things to be right. You would never have bid the game without the irregularity so your suggestion would take it away. Is this really what you want? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
nige1 Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 In any case, how do we rule when A. Player would certainly be aware, but the player is question is not known to ever be aware of anything? Perhaps you rule that the latter player couldn't have been aware. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
gordontd Posted May 22, 2016 Report Share Posted May 22, 2016 Isn't this what everyone wants?No. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
lamford Posted May 23, 2016 Report Share Posted May 23, 2016 No.I agree. But I would guess that over half of bridge players would not want an intentional irregularity to gain, even if the perpetrator could not work out how it would. I would go further and get rid of the requirement "could have been aware" altogether, so that an irregularity can never gain. Pran says it is just there so that there is no accusation of cheating. Rub of the green. Bah ... humbug ... there is enough luck in bridge already. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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