kenberg Posted April 30, 2016 Report Share Posted April 30, 2016 OK, this is not the B/I Forum. But I ask it anyway. 1D - (2C) - 2S - (P)3D- -(P) - 3S Is this forcing? Compare with 1D-1S2D-3S I, and I think most people, play this as highly invitational but not completely forcing. Maybe the original auction, with the interference, is still the same? Here is the hand that brought this to mind (I am S): [hv=pc=n&s=sht2dkqj9742ckq85&w=skqjh95d86cat7642&n=st987643hak8dA5c3&e=sa52hqj7643dt3cj9&d=s&v=e&b=3&a=1d2c2sp3dp4sppp]399|300[/hv] Ok, it makes 3NT with the spades 3-3 but no one was there and I am not worried about that. 4S is off 2 since a ruff allows them to take the AKQJ of spades on separate tricks, after the loss of a club. 4D makes, and 5D makes unless they start the defense with a diamond (and another D after the club goes to the ace). If diamonds are 3-1 with the long club hand having the short diamonds, it makes 5D. Quite possibly after my 3D pard might worry that he is in grave danger of losing a club and three top spades in a spade contract, but this is not why I post. I realized that I am not sure if 3S is forcing or not. I would raise 3S to 4S on a stiff Q, but suppose I have a singleton spot. On the uncontested auction 1D-1S-2D-3S I would feel allowed to pass. But after pard bids 2S over (2C) and then 3S over my 3D I am not so sure I am allowed to pass. As you can see from the hands we were not playing the 2S as a non-forcing free bid, it was a constructive bid, forcing for one round. 3NT is a miracle contract, we are not getting there. 4D would be great. 5D is fine as long as they can't or don't lead diamonds twice. But the simple question is: Would 3S be forcing or passable? Of course it is a matter of partnership agreement, what isn't, but how would you play it and what do you regard as standard? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
silvr bull Posted April 30, 2016 Report Share Posted April 30, 2016 I'll be the Lone Stranger on this. I have two KISS rules that I ask my partners to agree to. The first is that a 2 over 1 is forcing to 3M. With that guide, 3S below is forward going, but not forcing:1D - (2C) - 2S - (P)3D- -(P) - 3S The second is that any jump by an unpassed hand is forcing, so 3S below would be forcing for me:1D-1S2D-3S A problem I have with treating a jump by (an unpassed) responder as invitational is a hand like AQJxxx QJx K Jxx. Either 3NT or 4S could be the best spot, but I do not want to have to mis-describe my hand just to be sure partner does not pass 3S. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
masse24 Posted April 30, 2016 Report Share Posted April 30, 2016 highly invitational but not completely forcing. This. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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