The two hands beyond description in 2/1 system

[lycier]

Hello everyone :

 

First of all,let's read the book " Two over one Game Force (Revised-Expanded) " by Max Hardy.

 

http://i64.tinypic.com/zlb5s0.png

 

 

The hand beyond description in 2/1 system is six cards club with game invitational 9-11hcp.

 

As we know that jump shift response of 3♣ to an opening 1♦ is systemically to show a hand with 6-card ♣ suit and game invitational values (9+ to 12- points).

Now I have some similar problems on it here:

 

-------------------------------------------------

After your partner opens 1♣,you hold :

1-

♠: 54

♥: K93

♦: KQ10962

♣: Q8

 

2-

♠: xx

♥: xxx

♦: AKQxxx

♣: xx

 

If it goes :

1♣ - 1♦

1NT - ?

 

How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?

-------------------------------------------------

After your partner opens 1♥, you hold :

1-

♠: K93

♥: 54

♦: Q8

♣: KQ10962

 

2-

♠: xxx

♥: xx

♦: xx

♣: AKQxxx

 

The bidding sequences go :

1♥ - 1nt

2♦ - ?

 

How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?

--------------------------------------------------

After your partner opens 1♠, you hold :

1-

♠: 54

♥: k93

♦: Q8

♣: KQ10962

 

2-

♠: xx

♥: xxx

♦: xx

♣: AKQxxx

 

The bidding sequences go :

1♠ - 1nt

2♦ - ?

How to describe two hands? How to differentiate between two hands?

 

Now I think all the 2/1 players are sure to make some painful guessing to decide final contract in the most of situations.

Any suggested plans are welcomed.

 

Lycier

[helene_t]

After partner's 1NT rebid I would sign off with both of them. Maybe pass at matchpoints and 2♦ at IMPs? In any case, this is a matter of judgment, not system, since I am in charge and just place the contract.

 

After partner's 1M opening, 1NT followed by 3♣ would normally show a slightly weaker hand. So the choice is between an immediate 3♣ bid (if agreed to show invitational strength) or 1NT followed by 2NT. I think Hardy plays it the other way, i.e. the immediate 3♣ is weak while 1NT followed by 3♣ is invitational.

 

In any case, I have the choice between showing an invitational hand with clubs or an invitational balanced non-fitting hand.

 

I would chose to describe hand 1 as balanced and hand 2 as clubs, but playing Hardy's methods I will onfurtunately become declarer in a notrump contract with hand 2.

[monikrazy]

After a 1C open:

 

1.

At imps, 3D. At MP, maybe 2N.

 

2.

3N.

 

After a major open

1. 2N

 

2. 3C

 

 

 

A 2N redid by Hardy after a forcing NT shows 9-12 with other suits well-stopped so I think its a very reasonable description of our 10-count.

[rmnka447]

I'm basically in agreement with monikrazy on the auctions.

 

After

 

1 M - 1 NT

2 ♦ - 3 ♣

 

opener normally passes unless a maximum as you're showing a hand with just long ♣.

 

So 2 NT by responder becomes sort of a 9-11 catchall invitational bid.