aisha759 Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 [hv=s=sqtxhxxdxxxckjxxx]133|100|[/hv] I would like some input and advice on how to bid this hand after my partner opens1♥ and rebids 2♦ I will tell you what his hand was after I read some of your comments.. Thank you.. Aisha Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
pbleighton Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 What system are you playing? Peter Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 call the director immediately, you have 12 cards Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 I have a feeling that your 13th card is a club, so the bidding went 1♥ - 1NT ; 2♦ - ? In standard the rebid would be 2♥ rather than pass; both bids show 6-9. Most likely you have 7 hearts and 7 diamonds between you. My experience tells me that it's better to play on a 5-2 than a 4-3 fit. This is also how I teach my students. What if opener is 5-5, you may argue. Well, in that case pass would have worked out better, but he might just as well be 6-4, and then 2♥ is a better spot. So assume that he is 5-4 and give preference to hearts. Most people play this as 6-9 with 2 or 3 hearts. With 3 hearts (playing 5-card majors) you have the option of supporting on your first turn. Many 2/1 players have this as a constructive raise (7-9), so if responder has 3 hearts and 5-6 points he would start by bidding 1NT (one round force), then give preference to hearts. That is either: 1. 5-6 with 3 hearts, or 2. 6-9(10) with a doubleton As is the case in all situations: it depends on your agreement. By the way, if your 13th card is a spade, my rebid will still be 2♥. The same applies if the 13th card is a heart (see 1. above). Finally, if your last card is a diamond, pass is my bid. I think I have covered all situations, no matter where the missing card belongs. If 2/1 is the system, it's definitely with the odds to correct 2♦ to 2♥ every time you are 2-3 in the reds, since 2♦ can be 3 cards. Not often, but it can be (3532 or 4531). Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aisha759 Posted March 30, 2005 Author Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 Yes you are right Roland the 5th card was a club, i fixed it :huh: I don't know what system we were playing since it was a pick up partnership and this was the only hand we bid and off he went... but then I assume when no agreement has been made that we play SAYC......I had responded 1NT....I assumed that if my partner had 6♥ he would rebid them.... I do play NMF but decided to pass after a very long pause... I made a choice, it may have been wrong I should have probably bid 2♥ but had he been 5-5 or 6-5 then my pass would have been heroic...He left in a huff and a puff, after many insults and harassing private messages... I had no time to apologize nor explain...Below are both hands: [hv=n=shatxxxxdkjxxcxxx&s=sqtxhxxdxxxckjxxx]133|200|[/hv] Of course I gave him a piece of my mind privately also :D Aisha Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 I do play NMF but decided to pass after a very long pause This is a common mistake among inexperienced players. The auction has nothing to do with NMF (New Minor Forcing). NMF applies to responder's rebid after: 1mi - 1MA1NT Then 2 of the other minor is a one round force (NMF). 1♥ - 1NT2♦ is just another suit, showing at least 5-4 in the red suits and around 12-18 hcp. This is not a NEW minor, so it can't be NMF :huh: Having said that, I'd like to emphasize that beginners/intermediates concentrate much too much on adding zillions of conventions they don't know how to use. May I suggest that they learn the basics first before they start adding conventions. It's like trying to walk before you can crawl. No offence intended! Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
mike777 Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 Some might not open 1H.Some might rebid 2h, not 2d, so as to not have to put down this dummy. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 Opener was subminimum for his opening. It's also common practice to rebid 6 cd majors with a minimum 6-4 opening, rather than bid a side 4 bagger. Passing 2d was OK with this 6 count. Although usually one takes the false preference with 2 h + 3d, with a bare min passing is OK, since you prevent partner from bidding more. It can work out when he is 5-5, or if the 4-3 happens to play better than the 5-2, or if you can scramble a plus in 2d while bidding 2H would cause partner to bid more taking you into minus territory. When you are stronger you take the preference since the major tends to score better (particularly at MP) & you don't mind so much if partner bids again. If 1nt was forcing that would tilt towards bidding 2H since opener might have only 3d, but that's rare enough that passing may still be OK on percentage. I'd blame opener more for not opening or rebidding 2H. He was way out of line leaving in a huff & criticizing your bidding. I don't see how your result can be that bad anyway, the opponents should be able to make quite a few in spades, maybe even game. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 30, 2005 Report Share Posted March 30, 2005 What your partner's hand was, and whether (s)he bid correctly should be irrelevant here (although your partner's behavior was unacceptable!). 2H would be the normal bid here. I would advise you to ignore Stephen Tu's post, he is only trying to confuse you (no offense meant Stephen, I am not saying that you are wrong, but this is the wrong forum for such complicated arguments imo). With 6-9 points, 2 hearts and 3 diamonds, it is almost always correct to bid 2H. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 yeah, i'd have taken a pref to 2H also... i don't like the 1H opening at all, you should have left in a huff :huh: (j/k) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Stephen Tu Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 I would advise you to ignore Stephen Tu's post, he is only trying to confuse you It's one thing to say I'm wrong, it's perfectly reasonable to take a view that one should always take the preference with 2-3, or say I shouldn't bring up such issues in this section of the forums, but I think it's totally out of bounds to make a comment on my motivations for making the post. Why would you say I am attempting to confuse her? You have absolutely no basis for making that comment. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Jlall Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 because you are evil. JK lol. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
aisha759 Posted March 31, 2005 Author Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 Thanks everyone... since I don't know my partner's hand, it seems you are all in agreement that one should take a false preference to 2♥ and I agree with Jimmy (whatever he says)...The trouble is I thought like Stephen Tu and I am not at all confused with what he said.. I gave my partner 5-5...It would be nice to be able to discuss a bid with a partner, and apologize for making a bad decision... thanks to forums one can do it here...By the way Roland, my expert partner is the one who said he was playing NMF and i should have gone on and bid his first suit, and not pass... so he confused me!!! So i think he should be the one crawling for now... :D Thank you all again Aisha :) Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 Agree with Stephen. Partner bids your weak suits so there is no prospect of game. Pass before partner bids 2NT. You can always bid 2♥ later if you get doubled. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 Agree with Stephen. Partner bids your weak suits so there is no prospect of game. Pass before partner bids 2NT. You can always bid 2♥ later if you get doubled. If partner gets carried away bcause I make a simple preference, it is her problem, not mine. I show a weak hand (6-9) by giving preference as cheaply as possible, so if partner doesn't understand that, you can always ask her to read the complete textbook for beginners. The point is that I stay at the same level by rebidding 2♥. Passing with the purpose of stopping partner from bidding on is not bridge. Pass could indeed be the winning action on the hand, but if I pass, I do it because I think 2♦ is the right contract, not because I fear that partner goes bananas if I correct. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
helene_t Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 Roland, I suppose partner could have 2542 and 17 points, since 3♦ would have shown 18+ or even 19+. 2♥ would show 6-9. Right? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 Yes, 2♦ shows around 12-18 hcp with at least 5-4 in the red suits. My 2♥ preference shows 6-9, often with a doubleton heart. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rebound Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 I have read many many times how important it is to take a preference to 2♥ in this situation. Partner may hold a good hand with 6-4. Suppose you hold x AKxxxx AQJ10 xx. What's your bid after 1H-1NT? Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Walddk Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 I have read many many times how important it is to take a preference to 2♥ in this situation. Partner may hold a good hand with 6-4. Suppose you hold x AKxxxx AQJ10 xx. What's your bid after 1H-1NT? 2♦ obviously. We make slam opposite as little as xxxxxKxxxxxAx And in order to avoid any questions about it: The hand is never a heart rebid at any level, and not good enough for a jump shift. Roland Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
han Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 I would advise you to ignore Stephen Tu's post, he is only trying to confuse you It's one thing to say I'm wrong, it's perfectly reasonable to take a view that one should always take the preference with 2-3, or say I shouldn't bring up such issues in this section of the forums, but I think it's totally out of bounds to make a comment on my motivations for making the post. Why would you say I am attempting to confuse her? You have absolutely no basis for making that comment. I should have added a smillie face with the tongue sticking out, one of these: :P I didn't seriously mean that you were out to confuse them, so I apologize. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rebound Posted March 31, 2005 Report Share Posted March 31, 2005 I have read many many times how important it is to take a preference to 2♥ in this situation. Partner may hold a good hand with 6-4. Suppose you hold x AKxxxx AQJ10 xx. What's your bid after 1H-1NT? 2♦ obviously. We make slam opposite as little as xxxxxKxxxxxAx And in order to avoid any questions about it: The hand is never a heart rebid at any level, and not good enough for a jump shift. Roland That was, of course, my point. If you hold this hand, you really need partner to respond 2♥ rather than pass holding the given hand at the top of the thread. Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
P_Marlowe Posted April 1, 2005 Report Share Posted April 1, 2005 2H The reason is simple: Playing the 5-2 fit is oftenbetter than playing the 4-3 fit, because the most likly4-2 trump break will create problems, when openerneeds to ruff with the trump length. A further reason for bidding 2H: The diamond suit may only be a strong 3 carder, this will be the case, if partner triesto avoid rebidding the mayor, when it is only a 5 card suit. You will sometimes not play your best fit in diamond, but thats the price to pay.But the contract will be reasonable, and playing the mayor pays more than playing the minor. With kind regardsMarlowe Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
luke warm Posted April 2, 2005 Report Share Posted April 2, 2005 ~snip~ and I agree with Jimmy (whatever he says)...~snip~ proving yet once again that beauty and brains don't have to be mutually exclusive :lol: Quote Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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