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Are you going to chase the perfect hand with partner?


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IMPs, R v W, 2/1

 

AK76542 97 KQJ5 void

1 (P) 1 (P)

1N (P) ?

 

At the table I did seriously think about a slam as all partner needed was xx AKxx Axx xxxx but bailed out because it seemed so improbable.

 

I see no point in using a spoiler because you've probably guessed that partner had the perfect hand (why else would I be posting :) ) and 13 tricks duly rolled in on split spades and a diamond lead.

 

So would anyone seriously go looking for a slam and if so how?

 

The lazy option, which I took, was to bid a direct 4.

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There are hands where partner might rebid 1 NT with a stiff , but those aren't that common. So you're probably sitting opposite a doubleton minimum which means at least a 9 card spade fit. You also only have a 4 loser hand. There are just too many hands where slam will make to not at least explore for slam. ( A, 3 small spades, and another A are enough to make 6 a good contract.)
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Partner has appr. half the points you don't have (12-14 of 27), and since his distribution is about 1/3 of the cards you are missing in each suit, it is about right to give him 50% chance of holding each of the important cards you are missing.

 

That is four cards, and you need three of them for slam. But Q may not be necesary, and possibly not K either is there could be a finesse against it or the heart losers could go away on the diamonds if he is 3325 (but maybe it is his style to raise on that shape even with A? Anyway, he is is obviously more likely to have two spades than three). Or a heart loser can go away on A, or a ruffing finese in clubs if he has KQ.

 

So all in all I think it looks pretty good.

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The strength for slam in Spades is there. Does partner have an Ace? Does he have a first or second round stop in Hearts? I don't know. His Club Ace would be convenient as I could throw a Heart loser on it. Solution? Right or wrong, I'd blast to slam in Spades. Bidding the Diamonds first might seem obvious but it would also promote a Heart lead.
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Maybe

 

1-1

1N-21)

22)-23)

2N4)-45)

46)-47)

58)-6

P

 

1) ART GF

2) 4 H

3) 5+ S

4) 2434, most likely

5) Splinter, setting S as trumps

6) cue, liked 4

7) no H ctrl, NF

8) cue, good hand in context (even for a hand that liked 4)

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IMPs, R v W, 2/1

 

AK76542 97 KQJ5 void

1 (P) 1 (P)

1N (P) ?

 

At the table I did seriously think about a slam as all partner needed was xx AKxx Axx xxxx but bailed out because it seemed so improbable.

 

I see no point in using a spoiler because you've probably guessed that partner had the perfect hand (why else would I be posting :) ) and 13 tricks duly rolled in on split spades and a diamond lead.

 

So would anyone seriously go looking for a slam and if so how?

 

The lazy option, which I took, was to bid a direct 4.

 

Incredibly lazy not to try for slam. It doesnt need a perfect hand at all. xxx KQxx Axx KJxx has 4 wasted points and needs a 3-0 spade break or a unlikely ruff to go off. Quite a lot of system dependence on how you bid. I would at least want a chance to show partner that I had diamonds, so for me that would start with 2D GF checkback, if partner shows 3 spades I am golden, if he shows 5d I am also golden, if he bids hearts I have a tough choice. I'd probably bid 2S and if partner cannot raise, he will bid 2N and I can bid 3d. If partner bids 3N now he will be 2434 most likely, and I will just give up in 4S as now I do need a perfect hand. If he bids 3S Hx or 4d I will cuebid.

 

 

In the same line of thought, You open 1♥ in 3rd seat with

Axx

AJ98x

x

AKxx

 

Part. LHO You RHO

p p 1♥ p

2♣ p ?

 

You play reverse Drury.

 

Assuming thta 2C was the 3 card heart support, I would just bid 4H now. Slam is a long way off unless partner has a very a typical drury which he might well have bid differently. E.g. x KQx xxx QJTxxx or something. Even v good hands from responder like KQx KQx xxxx Qxx offer you no guarantee, as still would require 3-3 clubs or a otherwise friendly layout.

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Yes I would since there are MANY minimum opening hands where slam will be ice cold. To specify just a few:

 

xxx, KQx, Ax, KJxxx

Qx, Axxx, Ax, QJxxx

Jxx, Axx, xx, AKxxx

 

and even a minimum hand with club wastage could easily produce slam:

 

Jxx, Axx, xx, KQJxx

 

What's more, there are several minimum hands that will produce a grand slam:

 

Qxx, Axx, Axx, Axxx

xxx, Axx, Axx, Axxx

 

So, to not try for slam is a very poor decision.

 

Unless you play weak single jump shift responses or some conventional response that removes 2S from consideration, I think you should have announced your hand's tremendous slam potential immediately with a jump shift of 2S in response to partner's opening bid of 1C.

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Yes I would since there are MANY minimum opening hands where slam will be ice cold. To specify just a few:

 

xxx, KQx, Ax, KJxxx

Qx, Axxx, Ax, QJxxx

Jxx, Axx, xx, AKxxx

 

and even a minimum hand with club wastage could easily produce slam:

 

Jxx, Axx, xx, KQJxx

 

What's more, there are several minimum hands that will produce a grand slam:

 

Qxx, Axx, Axx, Axxx

xxx, Axx, Axx, Axxx

 

So, to not try for slam is a very poor decision.

 

Unless you play weak single jump shift responses or some conventional response that removes 2S from consideration, I think you should have announced your hand's tremendous slam potential immediately with a jump shift of 2S in response to partner's opening bid of 1C.

 

2♠​ wld have been fit-showing jump, showing 5 good spades and a 4 card fit, limit raise.

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If XYZ was 'on', 3 seems clear although I think the third call isn't obvious (suppose partner simply raises to 4 for example - we're back in the same boat. If that sequence demands a cuebid it's fine but not everybody plays that).

 

Soapbox time - wouldn't a strong jump shift help here originally :)

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Assuming you play some variant of 2-way checkback, then a handy treatment to handle this hand:

 

1C 1S 1NT 4X is a spade auto-splinter showing a singleton.

 

1C 1S 1NT 2C* 2D* 4X as a spade auto-splinter showing a void.

 

Normally I don't like playing conventions that are very low frequency due to memory load issues, but this is such an unusual sequence that it should be impossible to forget.

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If XYZ was 'on', 3 seems clear although I think the third call isn't obvious (suppose partner simply raises to 4 for example - we're back in the same boat. If that sequence demands a cuebid it's fine but not everybody plays that).

 

I don't play 3 absolutely demands a cue, but with A/AK you should make one - it's a much better hand opposite a one suiter with slam potential than some scattered 14 count.

 

I agree with 3 one might miss the slam opposite xxx KQxx Ax QJxx, though I think I would make a 5 try even opposite a signoff in 4.

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I agree, 3, as long as it is agreed/read as forcing is a good bid. If you have less agreements about forcing stuff and can't splinter in partners suit even a heart splinter has something going for it. They might believe your splinter and cash only one heart then switch giving you a potential pitch on the clubs some of the time when you have 12 tricks but 2 quick heart losers.
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I agree, 3, as long as it is agreed/read as forcing is a good bid. If you have less agreements about forcing stuff and can't splinter in partners suit even a heart splinter has something going for it. They might believe your splinter and cash only one heart then switch giving you a potential pitch on the clubs some of the time when you have 12 tricks but 2 quick heart losers.

 

What will they shift to?

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